Continuing
from Part II
Philippians
Who,
being
in the form of God,
thought
it not robbery to be equal with God:
But
made himself of no reputation,
and
took upon him the form of a servant,
and
was made in the likeness of men:
And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became
obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Wherefore God also
hath highly exalted him, and
given him a name which is above every name:
That
at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
of
things in heaven,
and
things in earth,
and
things under the earth;
And
that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father. (Philippians
2:6-11 KJV)
Here
Paul explains that Jesus preexisted with the Father with the same
nature as God. Jesus then lowered himself being found in appearance
as a man. Paul then explains the crucifixion and states that every
knee will bow to Christ and every tongue will confess that he is
Lord. Aside from the explicit statements about Jesus having the
nature of God, preexisting with the Father and then becoming a man,
the fact that Paul said every knee will bow to Christ and confess him
as Lord proves that Jesus is God Almighty. In the Old Testament
Hebrew scriptures we read:
Declare
what is to be, present it — let them take counsel together. Who
foretold this long ago, who declared it from the distant past? Was it
not I, the LORD? And there is no God apart from me, a righteous God
and a Saviour; there is none but me." Turn to me and be saved,
all you ends of the earth; for I am God, and there is no other. By
myself I have sworn, my mouth has uttered in all integrity a word
that will not be revoked: Before
me every knee will bow;
by
me every tongue will swear.
(Isaiah 45:21-23)
Notice
that the Isaiah prophecy says that one day in the future every knee
will bow to Yahweh and every tongue will swear by Yahweh. Well
according to Paul in Philippians 2:10-11 this will be fulfilled as
soon as every knee bows to Christ and confesses Christ is Lord by
their tongue. This is because Paul is teaching that Jesus is Yahweh.
Muslim
Objection: Shabir
Ally states: Paul’s letter to the Philippians ch. 2, vv. 6-11 is
often quoted as proof that Jesus is God. But the very passage shows
that Jesus is not God. This passage has to agree with Isaiah 45:22-24
where God (Yahweh) said that every knee should bow to Yahweh, and
every tongue should confess that righteousness and strength are in
Yahweh alone. Paul
was aware of this passage, for he quoted it in Romans 14:11. Knowing
this, Paul declared, “I kneel before the Father” (Ephesians
3:14). (28)
Christian Response: Ally’s
objection doesn’t address a number of issues relevant to
Philippians 2:6-11. He
doesn’t address Jesus being in very nature God, Jesus being equal
with God, or Jesus leaving his exaltation in heaven and becoming a
man. Ally attempts to address the knee bowing and confessing issue.
However, his response is full of holes.
First
of all, Ally doesn’t even acknowledge the fact that Christ is said
to be bowed to by all people and confessed as Lord fulfilling Isaiah
45:21-23. Ally merely says Philippians has to agree with Isaiah about
Yahweh alone being bowed to and confessed as Lord. Indeed, Paul does
agree because to him Jesus is Yahweh and when Jesus is bowed to,
Yahweh is bowed to. This is what Ally can’t see and won’t even
acknowledge. Ally notes how Paul said he kneels to the Father in
Ephesians 3:14. All that this establishes is that both the Father and
the Son are bowed to in different contexts. The Father being bowed to
once by Paul and the Son being bowed to by all people fulfilling the
prophecy of Isaiah 45:21-23. Ally
doesn’t try to address Philippians 2:6-11 exegetically and thus
fails to make a compelling case. Indeed, Paul was aware of Isaiah
45:22-24 and since he believed Jesus is Yahweh he wrote about Isaiah
45:22-24 being fulfilled when Christ is bowed to and confessed as
Lord by all people.
Muslim Objection: Zaatari
also takes a shot at debunking Philippians 2:6-11:
Many
Trinitarians use the above verse to claim that Jesus is God because
Paul claimed that Jesus existed in the form of God. Yet
what the Trinitarian failed to realize is this that this verse
greatly refutes them! Notice Jesus is not called God! There is a
difference between being called God, and being called to exist in the
form of God! Why didn't Paul just simply say Jesus who was God! God
is God! (29)
Christian Response: When
Muslims can’t refute a verse properly or address what the verse
actually does say, they have to invent their own criteria and then
claim the verse doesn’t meet them. Zaatari’s view is that unless
Jesus is “called God” here it doesn’t matter what else is said.
Jesus “being in very nature God” isn’t enough for Zaatari.
Jesus taking on flesh leaving his exalted status behind isn’t
enough. You can’t simply invent your own criteria and then claim
that because the verse doesn’t meet them in your opinion, that
therefore the verse doesn’t teach the Deity of Christ. That is not
how to exegete scriptures. We believe Jesus and the Father are
distinct in personhood yet both fully God. The Father is often called
God and so Jesus is described as God, but not called God, because the
title is reserved for the Father in some scriptures which, however,
does not undermine our theology at all. The fact is that Jesus is
described as having the very nature of God, preexisting in an exalted
state with the Father, and then coming down from heaven becoming a
man by his own will in perfect accord with the Father.
Muslim
Objection: Zaatari
states: Furthermore, why does Paul state that Jesus did not regard
equality with God to be something to be grasped, if Jesus is NOT God
then such a statement makes sense, since Jesus is not God, he did not
regard it as a major thing to be equal with God. An example could be
given with a servant who is equal with a king, but does not consider
that to be special, that statement only makes sense because he is a
servant and not the king himself!
Now
off course Jesus was not fully equal to God, as Paul has demonstrated
that Jesus is UNDER God, and God gave Jesus authority, and God made
Jesus a leader, hence it's not a literal equality. One must
understand the theology of Paul and certain Christians on this issue;
they believe that Jesus is God's PERFECT representative on earth, and
that Jesus fully carries out God's will and orders, for instance
Jesus said that he who sees Jesus sees the Father, for these
Christians they take that verse and say since Jesus is God's perfect
representative, and fully does what God wants, then in that certain
sense he is equal to God. It is indeed a very high exaltation of
Jesus, but it is in no way meant to say that he is God. As
one Christian writes:
So
what can we conclude about morphe?
The Philippian church consisted of Jews and converted Greeks. From
the Septuagint
and their other writings, the Jews were familiar with morphe
referring to the outward appearance, including the form of men and
idols. To the Greeks, it also referred to the outward appearance,
including the changing outward appearance of their gods and the form
of statues. The
only other New Testament use of morphe
outside Philippians is in Mark, and there it refers to the outward
appearance. Also, the words related to morphe
clearly refer to an outward manifestation or appearance. We assert
the actual evidence is clear: the word morphe
refers to an outward appearance or manifestation. Jesus
Christ was in the outward appearance of God, so much so that he said,
"He who has seen me has seen the Father." Christ
always did the Father's will, and perfectly represented his Father in
every way.
(http://www.biblicalunitarian.com/modules.php?name=Content&pa=showpage&pid=127)
Now
as Muslims we would never use such language or terminology, but that
is a different issue, what does matter is that Philippians 2:6 was
not meant to call Jesus God, it was terminology being used according
to a specific theology and thought. (30)
Christian Response: I
have never seen so many errors in one explanation of a passage.
Instead of accepting Zaatari’s Unitarian heretical exegesis of the
scriptures, let us examine the assessment of Philippians 2:6-11 made
by Robert M. Bowman, J. Ed Komoszewski, and Darrell L. Bock because
they give a lengthy discussion on the passages. Notice
that everything Zaatari just stated and quoted gets utterly refuted
in this exegesis.
One
of the most important biblical passages for our understanding of the
person of Jesus Christ is Philippians 2:6-11. In these six verses,
Paul taught that Christ was a preexistent person who was fully God
and yet humbled himself by becoming a human and dying on a cross (vv.
6-8). Then,
in Christ’s resurrection, God the Father exalted him in order that
he might be honoured by all creation as their divine Lord (vv. 9-11).
Although this understanding of the passage has come under criticism,
the evidence is decisive that Paul was, indeed, affirming the divine
pre-existence of Christ. In verse 6, Paul says that Christ “though
he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as
something to be exploited.” The natural way of understanding this
statement – and the way that the vast majority of Christian
interpreters historically have understood it – is that Christ
existed “in the form of God” in heaven before he became a man.
Thus, Paul goes on immediately to say that Christ “emptied himself,
taking the form of a slave, being born in human likeness,” and that
he was “found in human form” (v, 7) …
Most
of the scholarly debate regarding Philippians 2:6 focus’s on the
meaning of the Greek word harpagmos.
Since the word occurs only once in the Greek Bible and is rare in
extrabiblical literature, scholars have limited lexical data on which
to base their understanding of Paul’s intended meaning here. Some
understand Paul to be saying that Jesus did not consider it “robbery”
to be equal with God” (NKJV, following the KJV); others assert that
Jesus did not consider equality with God something “to be grasped”
(NASB, NIV, ESV). Still others maintain a more nuanced view, namely,
that Jesus did not think of equality with God as “something to be
exploited” (NRSV). Although the technical discussions of the
meaning of harpagmos
can be complex and confusing, this does not mean that we cannot
really know what Paul was saying in Philippians 2:6. However
harpagmos
is translated, Paul is still affirming the divine pre-existence of
Christ. The rendering “did not consider it robbery to be equal with
God” (NKJV, following the KJV), which has the least support among
biblical scholarship today, would mean that Christ was equal with God
and did not think that he had taken that status wrongfully. The more
common rendering “did not regard equality with God a thing to be
grasped” (NASB; cf. NIV, NET, ESV) would mean that the preexistent
divine Christ did not try to seize recognition of his rightful status
of equality with God, but chose to put the glory of the Father and
the salvation of sinners ahead of his own glory. The rendering “did
not regard equality with God as something to be exploited” (NRSV),
now favoured by many and possibly a majority of commentators, would
mean that Christ was equal with God but did not seek to take
advantage of the status for his own persona; comfort or gain.
Although
these ways of translating harpagmos
are very different, the resulting ways of understanding the
overarching thrust of the passage are essentially the same. Paul is
saying that Christ was divine in his nature or glorious form but did
not act in the self-serving manner one might have expected an
omnipotent Deity to act, taking whatever he wanted and demanding to
be treated as superior. This understanding fits the context well.
Paul’s point is that although Christ was in God’s form and was
(at least by right) God’s equal, he did not demand his divine
rights but humbly took a servants form and became a human being. (31)
Zaatari’s
eisegetical mishandling of the scripture has no leg to stand on in
light of scholarly research on the subject. Zaatari doesn’t address
the argument that Philippians 2:6-11 fulfills Isaiah 45:21-24 either.
Zaatari’s Unitarian handling of the Greek word ‘morphē’
(form) is also problematic. They claim that it only means that Jesus
was a metaphorical outward appearance of the Father – perfectly
representing him when it says “Who, being in the form of God.”
This metaphorical representative interpretation doesn’t work. The
passage is talking about Jesus being in heaven as the morphē
(form) of God and then leaving that position thus becoming themorphē
(form) of slave. Paul uses the same Greek word (morphē)
in verse 7 describing Jesus becoming human in nature. With this in
mind the only conclusion is that, just as Jesus was found in human
morphē
(lowered slave form), he was originally in the morphē
(form of God) while in heaven before the incarnation. This is about
Jesus having the glory and nature of God. Since Jesus Christ had the
appearance (form) of God it means Jesus had the glory of God because
God’s appearance or form is glory and divine exaltation. However,
no creature can have the glory of God. Jesus isn’t a creature but
instead the divine second person of the Trinity. Therefore
Jesus preexisted having the glory of God and then he lowered himself
having the nature of man in the first-century. That is what Paul is
teaching here and that is why the Weymouth
New Testament
and the NIV translate this as Jesus being in the very “nature”
(morphē)
- God.
Colossians
For
by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth,
visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or
authorities; all things were created by him and for him. He is before
all things, and in him all things hold together.
And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and
the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might
have supremacy. (Colossians 1:16-18)
Here
Jesus is described as the creator of all things. Paul notes that
Christ holds ALL THINGS together. In order to be able to do this
Jesus would need to be all powerful, all knowing and everywhere.
Creatorship, omnipotence, omniscience, and omnipresence are
attributes of God alone and thus when Paul proclaims that Jesus is
the creator who holds ALL THINGS together he is affirming his Deity.
Muslim Objection: Shabir
Ally asserts: Paul believed that Jesus was an agent whom God used in
creating the cosmos. (32)
Christian Response: If
we grant Ally’s interpretation it proves that Jesus is God
according to Islam. Firstly,
Ally doesn’t address the fact that it says Jesus sustains all
things and holds them together. That alone entails Jesus’ Deity. In
order for Jesus to hold all things together he would need to know
what needs to be held together (all knowing), he would need to have
the power to sustain it (all powerful), and he would need to be able
to sustain all things at once in all places (everywhere). This
means Jesus is omnipotent, omnipresent, and omniscient. These are
attributes of God alone. But even with that said, in order for Christ
to be the agent that the Father used to create the cosmos it would
mean that according to Paul Jesus preexisted alone with the Father
(and Spirit, Genesis 1:2). And it must mean that His existence and
fellowship with the Father and the Spirit is eternal, for it doesn’t
simply say He was
before all things, as if there could have been a time before creation
when the Son was not with the Father and the Holy Spirit; it says “He
IS
before all things” right now. This
demonstrates that it was not the position of early Christians like
Paul that Jesus was just a prophet who first saw life at birth. That
is not the Jesus of the first-century. The Jesus of the first-century
preexisted with the Father in glory, he had a part in creating all
things (see also John 1:1-3), and he is now sustaining all creation.
However,
according to Islam if this is true then that makes Jesus God.
Remember the first classification of Tawheed (Islamic monotheism).
Tawheed al-Rububiya: Unity of Lordship. Lest I be accused of
re-defining the first classification of Tawheed, I will let Muslim
apologists Zawadi and Zaatari define it:
Allah
is one in lordship. Muslims
must believe that Allah is the sole lord who
is in control of all things.
He
is the ultimate being who sustains and nourishes all things,
and
there is no one else who shares that kind of authority alongside with
him.
(33)
Tawhid
of Lordship, that there is only one God and that he
is the creator of all things,
in charge and owner of all things, and so on and so on. (34)
Notice
that according to these Muslim apologists Tawheed al-Rububiya means
that God creates, sustains and controls all things alone. But
wait, according to Colossians 1:16-18 Jesus had a part in creating
all things. It
is the Lord Jesus Christ who sustains and holds all things together!
Thus, according to Islam Jesus is God. This should make people wonder
why Shabir Ally asserts that the Bible doesn’t teach that Deity of
Christ, when, in light of Islamic monotheism, Jesus has the unique
attributes and characteristics of God.
1
& 2 Thessalonians
In
the books of 1st
and 2nd Thessalonians Jesus is said to return to earth with HIS
saints/angels displaying great glory and might:
so
that He may establish your hearts without blame in holiness before
our God and Father at the coming of our Lord
Jesus with all HIS saints.
(1 Thessalonians 3:13)
This
will happen when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven in blazing
fire with HIS
powerful angels.
(2 Thessalonians 1:7)
This
very fact is reiterated in the gospel of Matthew and Mark:
‘For
the
Son of Man
is to come with HIS
angels
in the glory of his Father, and then he will repay every man for what
he has done.’ (Matthew 16:27)
At
that time men will see the
Son of Man
coming in clouds with great power and glory.And
he will send HIS angels
and
gather his elect
from the four winds, from the ends of the earth to the ends of the
heavens. (Mark 13:26-27)
Interestingly
we read in the book of Psalms that the angels and saints belong to
Yahweh! Yahweh is sovereign over all creation and thus it belongs to
him. This shows that Jesus and Yahweh are one and the same since
Jesus is said to own the angels and saints.
Bless
Jehovah, ye HIS angels,
That are mighty in strength, that fulfil his word, Hearkening unto
the voice of his word. (Psalm 103:20)
Praise
ye him, all
HIS angels:
Praise ye him, all his host. (Psalm
148:2)
Muslim Objection: I
was unable to find a Muslim objection to this argument or these
passages.
1
Timothy
This
is good, and it is pleasing in the sight of God our Savior, who
desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the
truth. For
there is one God,
and
there is one mediator between God and men,
the
man Christ Jesus,
who gave himself as a ransom for all, which is the testimony given at
the proper time. (1 Timothy 2:3-6)
Muslim Objection: Muslims
often use these passages to assert that because it says that there is
“one God” and then it later identifies Christ as “the Man
Christ Jesus” therefore, according to their understanding, Jesus is
distinct from God. Muslim apologist Shadid Lewis states:
In
first Timothy chapter two verse five, “there is one God and one
mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus.” So God is on
one side, mankind is on the other; in the middle is the mediator and
the mediator is not God. The mediator himself is a man also. So I saw
these claims and I said well Islam is speaking the truth then. (35)
Christian Response: However,
if Lewis was logically consistent he would have to also argue that
Jesus cannot be man either since he is in the middle of BOTH
God
AND
mankind, not just God. Thus, per his reasoning since Jesus is in the
middle he must not be human after all!
Moreover,
despite the Muslim distortion of this scripture, 1 Timothy 2:3-6 can
be used to establish the Deity of Christ if proper exegesis is
utilized. Sedevacantist and traditional Catholic apologist Gerry
Matatics argues that this verse actually affirms the Deity of Christ:
Jesus
Christ is the only unique mediator between God and man because he is
the only one who is both God and man. That is what St. Paul is saying
in 1 Timothy 2:4 when he says there is one God and one mediator
between God and man the Man Christ Jesus. (36)
To
further clarify Mr. Matatics’ position I will say that according to
Paul, all mankind is burdened with sin from birth. This doctrine of
inherent sin can be found in the following passages:
What
then? Are we better than they? Not at all; for we have already
charged that both Jews and Greeks are
all under sin;
(Romans 3:9)
for
all
have sinned
and fall short of the glory of God, (Romans 3:23)
So
then, just as sin entered
the world through one man
and death
through sin,
and so death spread to all people because all
sinned.
(Romans 5:12)
The
position of Paul, as well as the other New Testament writers, is that
humanity is sinful inherently and in need of a saviour because of the
fall of Adam in the Garden of Eden. So it is clear that all humans
have sinned according to Christian theology. However, these same New
Testament authors exclaim that Jesus Christ became fully man, was
sinless and the only one qualified to pay for our sin by dying on the
cross as the unblemished lamb.
For
we do not have a high priest who
is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses,
but
we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are—yet
was without sin.
(Hebrews 4:15)
He
committed no sin,
nor
was deception found in his mouth.
(1 Peter 2:22)
But
you know that he
appeared so that he might take away our sins.
And
in him is no sin.
(1 John 3:5)
Since
all humans have sinned and are unable to sufficiently atone for it
themselves, the second person (Jesus) of the tri-personal God-head
had to become a sinless man acting as mediator on our behalf. Man is
corrupt and unable to save himself from his sinful ways but the
God-man Jesus, who is 100% God and 100% man, incarnated himself into
the world to redeem humanity. Matatics’
position on these passages is correct and it affirms the Deity of
Christ because only God can live without sin, therefore God’s death
in the cross has saving value and atonement.
2
Timothy
who
has saved us and called us to a holy life—not because of anything
we have done but because of his own purpose and grace. This grace was
given
us in Christ Jesus before the beginning of time,
but
it has now been revealed through the appearing of our Savior, Christ
Jesus,
who has destroyed death and has brought life and immortality to light
through the gospel. (2 Timothy 1:9-10)
This
scripture indicates Christ’s preexistence with the Father and it
implies his incarnation into the world. This is exactly what we would
expect to find in Paul’s epistles if he supported the Deity of
Christ. In
order for Christ to be God he must have preexisted before his human
life. New Testament scholar Dr. Gordon Donald Fee illustrates this
point in his work ‘Pauline Christology: An Exegetical-Theological
Study’:
Even
though the “impoverishment” motif does not occur in this passage,
the emphasis is once more on Christ’s preexistence and the
genuineness of his incarnation. Christ’s preexistence is asserted
by the clause “God saved us … in keeping with this own purpose
and grace, which was given to us in Christ Jesus before the ages
began.” His
incarnation is then expressed as, “but has now been revealed
through the appearing of our Savior, Christ Jesus.” Thus, this very
Pauline concern finds expression in the corpus yet one more time.
Christ
preexisted with the Father, and at one point in human history he
became incarnate in order to redeem. (37)
Muslim Objection: I
was unable to find a Muslim objection to this passage or argument.
Continuing
on Part IV
Source:
http://answering-islam.org/authors/thompson/case_for_deity.html
(Kiki_32)IHS
Keith
Thompson
Is
Jesus God? This
is one of the main questions that have divided Christians and Muslims
for hundreds of years. To the student who studies the Bible honestly
there should be no question that Jesus Christ is presented as God in
many Biblical passages. However, many Muslim apologists and liberal
critics have attempted to take this notion to task. In this article I
will build a Biblical case for the Deity of Christ and address the
major Muslim objections to the Biblical data.
Muslim AdmissionsBefore
we examine the Biblical proof texts for the Deity of Christ it is
important to note that many Muslim apologists have already conceded
that there are passages in the Bible that teach not only the Deity of
Christ, but the Trinity as well. These admissions serve to show the
utter inconsistency of Muslim apologists when it comes to Christian
theology. Some
will claim the Bible does not teach that Jesus is God anywhere and
others will say that there are places that do teach it.
Muslim
apologist Yahya Hayder Seymour not only conceded on radio that there
are places in the Bible that teach Jesus is God, but he also concedes
that the Gospel of John is a Trinitarian Gospel.
I
would say definitely the Gospel of John is a Trinitarian Gospel. (1)
This
is a contrast to what other Muslim apologists have said. For example
Shabir Ally, a noted Muslim apologist, has remarked:
…
both the Bible and the Qur’an teach that Jesus is not God. (2)
In
an earlier article (3) I showed how Muslim apologist Sami Zaatari
falsely assumed that the words in John 1:14 that were parenthesized
in some English translations, were not originally in the Greek
Biblical texts. The words which he said were added in later by
English translators are these:
And
the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us (and
we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father),
full of grace and truth. (John 1:14, ASV)
In
that article I demonstrated that those words, though parenthesized in
some English translations, existed in the Greek texts and the early
Church Fathers quoted them. Thus when Zaatari further states the
following, he implicitly admits that the Bible teaches the Trinity:
As
you can see, without the false
biased brainwashing brackets
the
verse has no implications of any Trinity!
So
in the realm of Muslim apologetics there is no consensus on this
issue of what the Bible teaches about Jesus. Moreover, Muslim
apologist Bassam Zawadi contradicts the other Muslim position which
asserts that nowhere does the Bible teach that Jesus is God. Zawadi
states:
I
do not take the position that the entire New Testament (especially
the writings of Paul) does not teach the Trinity. I only take the
position that Jesus
himself did not teach this doctrine in any of the four gospels.
(4)
So
it appears that although many Muslims are bold enough to claim that
nowhere in the entire Bible is the Deity of Christ or the Trinity
presented, other Muslim defenders take the more realistic yet flawed
approach which says that Jesus didn’t teach the Trinity but some
parts of the Bible do teach this.
Biblical
ArgumentationIn
this article we will look at Biblical passages from every New
Testament book which teach that Jesus is God or have Jesus presenting
himself as God. We
will go through the three synoptic Gospels Matthew, Mark, and Luke –
as well as the Gospel of John. Then we will look at Acts, Paul’s
writings, James, First and Second Peter, First and Second John, Jude,
and Revelation. I
will systematically demonstrate that every New Testament book, with
the exception of 3 John, teaches the Deity of Christ in one way or
another.
Then we will address
the common Muslim objections to these verses.
Although it
can be shown relatively easily that Jesus is God in the Old Testament
Hebrew scriptures, this article will focus solely on the New
Testament data.
For
proof that Jesus is God according to the Old Testament see the
following papers:
http://www.answering-islam.org/God/echad.html
http://www.answering-islam.org/Shamoun/psalm110_1.htm
http://www.answering-islam.org/Shamoun/jesus_is_yahweh.htm
http://www.answering-islam.org/Shamoun/messiah_exaltation.htm
http://www.answering-islam.org/authors/shamoun/christ_daniel.html
http://www.answering-islam.org/authors/shamoun/intertestamental1.html
http://www.answering-islam.org/authors/shamoun/messiah_targums1.html
http://www.answering-islam.org/authors/shamoun/israels_gods.html
http://www.answering-islam.org/authors/shamoun/trinity_isaiah_1.html
http://www.answering-islam.org/authors/shamoun/god_as_man.html
(Though
many of the narratives are often paralleled in the four Gospels, the
point I am trying to make is that every
single New Testament book affirms Christ’s Deity.)
Muslim
apologists have attempted to address the majority of the passages I
am about to present. However, they have not addressed a small number
of them so the few that they have not yet attempted to address will
be unchallenged in this article.
Gospel
of Matthew
I
tell you that one greater
than the temple
is here. If you had known what these words mean, ‘I desire mercy,
not sacrifice,’ you would not have condemned the innocent. For the
Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath.
(Matthew 12:6-8)
Here
Jesus demonstrates his Deity by affirming that he is distinct from
all creation and greater than the temple of God - the place that
housed the glory of God. No creature can claim to be greater than
God’s abode. He also states that he is Lord of the Sabbath, a
glorious divine title which is very similar to how Yahweh is
described in the Old Testament. Only God deserves these titles and
this appears to be one of the reasons why the Jews wanted to kill him
in Matthew 12:14.
Muslim
Objection: Typically
Muslims will raise five objections to these passages. 1. They will
say that in Matthew 12 Jesus allowed the disciples to pick some heads
of grain and eat on the Sabbath when they were hungry and therefore
since they violated the Sabbath along with Jesus in a sense this is
nothing special. 2. They will say in Matthew 12 Jesus talks about
David and his companions entering the temple on the Sabbath in the
Old Testament where they consecrated bread which was not lawful for
them to do. From that they will conclude that Jesus’ statements are
nothing special. 3. They will cite John 7:23 where circumcision was
practiced on the Sabbath – thus, it is not so uncommon and does not
prove Jesus is God. 4. They will claim that when Mark 2:27-28 says
the following; it means that everyone is Lord of the Sabbath: “Then
he said to them, ‘The Sabbath was made for man, not man for the
Sabbath. So
the Son of Man is Lord even of the Sabbath.’” 5. They will say
that the titles “Lord of the Sabbath” and “Greater than the
temple” are just titles and honours that were given to him by God
in John 13:3, therefore they do not imply that Jesus is God.
Christian
Response: On
point 1 and 2, Christ, being God and heir of all creation (Hebrews
1:2), had the power and authority to explain the Sabbath, redefine
it, and to allow his disciples to do what they did, thus proving a
very important point about who Jesus is and what unique authority he
has. The
Sabbath was created by God for man so he can rest. It is supposed to
help man but if man is hungry on the Sabbath and has to work for his
food then he should be able to do so. This is what is indicated here.
This is why Christ referenced the OT story of David and his
companions eating consecrated bread on the Sabbath. It is because the
Sabbath is meant to help man, and since food helps to sustain man,
there is no point in going hungry on the Sabbath. If Sabbath rest
benefits the people with the rest it provides, going hungry defeats
the purpose. Yes, breaking the Sabbath was punishable by death but
there were some cases where it was allowed and was not considered
breaking the Sabbath at all. Other people like David “breaking the
Sabbath” before Christ doesn’t take anything away from Christ
being called “greater than the temple” or “Lord of the
Sabbath.” The titles bestowed upon him are not simply due to these
Matthew 12 teachings and actions regarding the Sabbath. The titles
belong to him because of his nature. The context answers point 1 and
2 and the Muslim argumentation is shown to be problematic and
irrelevant.
With
respect to point 3, Church Father Augustine provides the commentary:
“Because circumcision refers to a particular sign of salvation, and
people should not give themselves a rest from salvation on the
Sabbath. ‘So
then, do not be angry with me, because I have saved the whole man on
the Sabbath.
(John 7:23).’”(5) This is what Christ was communicating to his
Jewish audience. This takes nothing away from the glorious titles of
Jesus either.
Regarding
point 4, the Muslims read too much into Mark 2 when they conclude
that this means all men are Lord of the Sabbath. Mark 2:27-28 states:
Then
he said to them, ‘The
Sabbath was made for man,
not man for the Sabbath. So theSon
of Man is Lord even of the Sabbath.’
This
verse declares that the Son of Man is Lord even over the Sabbath –
not all men or mankind. This would be offensive to God, as God is the
true creator and Lord of the Sabbath. Just because there were
exceptions to the rule that were not really considered as breaking
Sabbath, that does not mean that man is Lord of the Sabbath either;
he was still strictly subject to it. The Sabbath day is the Lord’s
Day. Only God is truly sovereign or Lord over the Sabbath with the
power to overrule it completely – as Jesus did by becoming our
Sabbath rest.
Come
to me, all you who are weary and burdened, and I
will give you rest.
(Matthew 11:28)
There
remains, then, a Sabbath-rest
for the people of God;
for anyone who enters God's rest also rests from his own work, just
as God did from his. (Hebrews 4:9-10)
We
are no longer bound to works of the law. We are set free and as such
Jesus Christ is indeed Lord of the Sabbath. It is in him where we
have rest. He becomes our Sabbath and thus the title ‘Lord of the
Sabbath’ is very appropriate because it not only shows his divine
authority and deity but it also shows how he is now our rest in place
of the Sabbath day.
The
scholar and former president of Columbia International University, J.
Robertson McQuilkin explains why Mark 2:27-28 has it so that Jesus
alone is Lord of the Sabbath as opposed to all mankind:
“Some
interpret this to mean that all sons of men (mankind) are lord of the
Sabbath and can do as they please on this day. But it is impossible
to interpret the passage this way because “Son of Man” is a
technical term that Christ uses in referring to himself as the
Messiah. In
the parallel passage in Matthew 12, immediately before he says “the
Son of man is lord of the Sabbath,” he identifies the Son of Man as
“greater than the temple,” a clear reference to himself. Christ
is speaking of himself as being lord of the Sabbath.” (6)
Moreover,
just a few verses before this statement, Jesus declared that “the
Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins” (Mark 2:10).
There cannot be any doubt that “the Son of Man” in this context
does not refer to “man” in general.
Now,
with respect to point five which is that according to John 13:3 Jesus
was given the titles “greater than the temple” and “Lord of the
Sabbath” by the Father (7), Muslims seem to think that because the
Father gave Jesus those titles of honour and glory that therefore
Jesus isn’t God. The whole crux of the argument is that according
to Old Testament passages such as Leviticus 23:3, God is the Lord of
the Sabbath because it is His. He created it and it therefore belongs
to Him.
…
It is the LORD's
Sabbath day
… (Leviticus 23:3)
…
For the
Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath.
(Matthew
12:8)
Secondly,
only God Almighty is greater than the temple because it belongs to
him and it is where God’s glory is contained.
…
Solomon also made all the furnishings that were in the LORD's
temple.
(1
Kings 7:48)
I
tell you that one greater
than the temple
is here. (Matthew
12:6)
Since
Jesus is Lord, we are told in Malachi 3:1 that Yahweh’s temple is
“his temple”:
Behold,
I send my messenger, and he will prepare the way before me. And the
Lordwhom
you seek will suddenly come to his
temple;
and the messenger of the covenant in whom you delight, behold, he is
coming, says the LORD of hosts.
The
reason why the Father gave the Son these glorious titles and honours
is because they rightly belong to the Son and they demonstrate who he
really is - God. He
is the incarnate Son of God – the second person of the tri-personal
God-head. Isaiah
42:8 tells us that God’s glory belongs to no one but him. It
states:
I
am the LORD; that is my name! I
will not give my glory to another
or my praise to idols.
The
reason the Father could give Jesus this glory in the form of titles –
the same Glory he says only belongs to him, is because Jesus is also
fully God so there is no contradiction – he is giving the glory to
himself in a sense. The Father, Son and Spirit are one being and
three persons. Jesus was not simply given these titles because he is
an exalted prophet. This would go against the Father’s previous
exhortation in Isaiah 42:8. It would go against the clear Old
Testament teachings that have God as Lord of the Sabbath and temple.
Thus it is quite clear that after one assesses both the Muslim and
the Christian point of view on Matthew 12:6-8, Jesus declares himself
God by identifying himself as greater than the temple and Lord of the
Sabbath.
As
Dr. Frederick Dale Bruner remarks:
…
For the Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath.’ Therefore what Jesus,
the Son of Man, says about Sabbath observance is decisive. According
to the law of God (Exod 20:10; Lev 23:3, Deut 5:14), the Sabbath day
is “for” and “to” Yahweh; he is Lord of the Sabbath. Hence
Jesus is making a second indirect reference, after his “a greater
than the temple is here,” to what the later church rightly called
Jesus’
deity.
(8)
Gospel
of Mark
But
Jesus remained silent and gave no answer. Again the high priest asked
him, “Are youthe
Christ,
the
Son of the Blessed One?
"I
am,"
said Jesus. "And
you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty
One and coming on the clouds of heaven."
The high priest tore his clothes. "Why do we need any more
witnesses?" he asked. "You
have heard the blasphemy.
What do you think?" They all condemned him asworthy
of death.
Then some began to spit at him; they blindfolded him, struck him with
their fists, and said, "Prophesy!" And the guards took him
and beat him. (Mark 14: 61-65)
Here
Jesus not only claims to be the unique Son of the blessed God, but he
also claims that he will be seated at the right hand of the Father –
co-occupying God’s throne. He claims to be the prophesied Son of
Man from the Old Testament book of Daniel who happens to be God and
is said to come on the clouds of Heaven.
In
my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one
like a son of man,
coming
with the clouds of heaven.
He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He
was given authority,
glory
and sovereign power;
all
peoples,
nationsand
men of every language worshiped him.
His
dominion is an everlastingdominion that will not pass away,
and
his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.
(Daniel 7:13-14)
In
verse 14 where it says all peoples, nations, and men of every
language worshiped him, the transliterated word for worship there is
‘pĕlach’
(Aramaic); which derives from the Hebrew root word ‘Peal’ פָּלַח.
When
the word appears in the Old Testament it is either used in reference
to the special worship of God Almighty, or the special worship of
false gods by people of other beliefs. This is divine worship yet
this Son of Man, Jesus Christ, receives this worship indicating that
he is God.
The
statements of Jesus in Mark 14:61-65 that show he is the Son of Man
referenced in Daniel 7 were considered so blasphemous that the high
priest tore his clothes. They knew he was claiming Deity here. If the
Daniel 7 Son of Man is a person who is able to approach the Ancient
of days, receive authority, glory, power, worship from all people,
and everlasting dominion then that person is above all humanity
sharing the attributes and glory of God. This Son of Man would have
to be God and the high priest understood this. Those at the trial
likewise understood this to be a blasphemous statement of uniqueness
and Deity and thus they spit on him, beat him, and demanded he be put
to death.
Muslim
Objection: Commenting
on this argument for Christ’s Deity popular Muslim apologist Shabir
Ally states:
This
is reported variously in Matthew, Mark, and Luke. In
Matthew and Luke’s versions we have it that Jesus did not actually
affirm the title, he said you are the ones claiming that I am in
essence. And to say that Jesus comes on the clouds of heaven proves
that he is God himself - that would be to say that God could not do
this for one of his creatures. (9)
Christian
Response:
Both
of Ally’s criticisms here are invalid. Historians and scholars
recognize that Jesus was not merely saying “you are the ones
claiming that I am the Son,” to these Jews, so as to deny that he
is the Son. Jesus was in fact affirming that he is the Son in all
three accounts – Matthew, Mark and Luke; two of which simply
contain Jewish idiom’s to get the message across.
As
Dr. Darrell L. Bock explains:
Though
there is variation and difference in detail, the gist of the replies
is the same. Whether Jesus said “I am” or
used the idiom
“You
are right in saying I am”
– an ancient expression that means, “It
is as you say but not with the sense you mean”
– he
affirmed his identification as Messiah, Son of God.
(10)
Remember,
when dealing with minor variations or inconsistencies we do not throw
out the sources, we use the historical method to determine what the
original statement probably was. In
this case all three accounts have it so that Jesus is affirming that
he is indeed the Son after being asked. The only difference is that
the affirmative answer is given in two different ways – one in
Matthew and Luke with a clever idiom and the other in Mark with a
straightforward “I am.” The principle is there in all three
narratives. Mark is the earliest so many would say his account is
probably correct. However
if the accounts in Matthew and Luke are correct and based on a
tradition or source that pre-dates Mark then that is okay too. They
all get the same message across. Moreover, in all three accounts
Jesus goes on to say that he is the Son of Man seated at the right
hand of God which is the main point of the passage in that it is an
appeal to Daniel 7. By
identifying himself as the Son of Man found in Daniel 7 he is
identifying himself as God.
It
becomes evident that one is justified in using these Biblical
passages as evidence for Christ’s Deity, despite having examined
the Muslim objection.
Ally’s
second argument is that God can do this for one of his creatures.
This assertion is not only blasphemous according to the Bible but it
is also blasphemous according to Islamic teachings regarding
monotheism. ‘Tawheed’ is an Islamic principle that means ‘Islamic
monotheism’ and is often divided into three categories.
John
Eberly explains:
Tawheed:
(or Tawhid, etc.) Is of three kinds:
-
Tawheed al-Rububiya: Unity
of Lordship.
-
Tawheed al-Uloohiya: Unity
of Worship.
-
Tawheed al-Asma was-Sifat: Unity
of the Names and qualities of God.
(11)
Sam
Shamoun brought this excellent type of argumentation to my attention.
Ally
is violating Islamic monotheism when he asserts that it is okay for
God to give a creature the attributes and privileges found in Daniel
7 and Mark 14. God giving this type of glory and honour to anyone but
himself would result in a violation of these three classifications of
Tawheed.
For example Jesus receives sovereign power and Lordship over all
peoples. This violates Tawheed al-Rububiya. Jesus receives worship
from every nation. This violates Tawheed al-Uloohiya. Jesus is
identified as the Son of the Most High. This would seem to violate
Tawheed al-Asma was-Sifat in that when Jesus is called Son of the
Most High it denotes his unique relationship to the Father as well as
the fact that he bears the nature of God. And since the nature of God
is a quality of God this violates Tawheed al-Asma - the names and
qualities of God.
It
is equally as blasphemous Biblically for a mere creature to receive
this kind of honour and glory. We read in Isaiah 44:6-8, Jeremiah
10:10, and Joel 3:12 that God alone is the eternal King and eternal
ruler, yet Jesus receives authority over every person and nation.
Jesus
has an everlasting kingdom and serves as the ruler.
Ally’s
second response to Daniel 7 and Mark 14 is therefore incorrect. If
Jesus isn’t God and yet receives this honour and glory it not only
violates Islamic Tawheed but it also violates Biblical instruction.
The
scholars Robert
M. Bowman,
J.
Ed Komoszewski,
and Darrell
L. Bock
point out that:
Thus,
when Jesus answers affirmatively that he is the Son of God and then
immediately adds statements claiming to sit
on God’s throne at his right hand,
exercising
divine power in heaven,
his response confirms that he is, indeed, claiming
to be on the same level as God.
(12)
Gospel
of Luke
In
the Old Testament book of Isaiah it was prophesied that God himself
would appear to his people after a voice crying in the wilderness
prepares his way:
Comfort,
comfort my people, says your God. Speak tenderly to Jerusalem, and
cry to her that her warfare is ended, that her iniquity is pardoned,
that she has received from the LORD’s hand double for all her sins.
A
voice cries:
"In
the wilderness prepare
the way of the LORD;
make straight in the desert a highway for
our God.
Every valley shall be lifted up, and every mountain and hill be made
low; the uneven ground shall become level, and the rough places a
plain. And
the glory of the
LORD
shall be revealed, and
all flesh shall see it together,
for the mouth of the LORD has spoken." … Get you up to a high
mountain, O Zion, herald of good news; lift up your voice with
strength, O Jerusalem, herald of good news; lift it up, fear not; say
to the cities of Judah, "Behold
your God!"
Behold, the
Lord GOD comes with might,
and his arm rules for him; behold, his reward is with him, and his
recompense before him. He will tend his flock like a shepherd; he
will gather the lambs in his arms; he will carry them in his bosom,
and gently lead those that are with young. (Isaiah 40:1-5, 9-11, ESV)
This
was fulfilled in the New Testament when John the Baptist, the voice
crying in the wilderness, prepared the way for God Almighty.
In
the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar, Pontius Pilate
being governor of Judea, and Herod being tetrarch of Galilee, and his
brother Philip tetrarch of the region of Ituraea and Trachonitis, and
Lysanias tetrarch of Abilene, during the high priesthood of Annas and
Caiaphas, the
word of God came to John
the son of Zechariah in
the wilderness.
And
he went into all the region around the Jordan, proclaiming a baptism
of repentance for the forgiveness of sins. As it is written in the
book of the words of Isaiah the prophet, "The
voice of one crying in the wilderness:
'Prepare
the way of
the Lord,
make his
paths straight. Every valley shall be filled, and every mountain and
hill shall be made low, and the crooked shall become straight, and
the rough places shall become level ways, and all flesh shall see the
salvation of God.'"
(Luke 3:1-6, ESV)
John
the Baptist, the voice of one crying in the wilderness, is making the
way for Yahweh so that Yahweh God could appear to his people as the
scriptures prophesied. John the Baptist declares that he is making
the way for Jesus Christ:
John
answered them all, saying, "I baptize you with water, but
he who is mightier than I is coming,
the strap of whose sandals I am not worthy to untie. He will baptize
you with the Holy Spirit and with fire. (Luke 3:16, ESV)
He
[John the Baptist] said, "I
am
the voice of one crying out in the wilderness,'Make
straight the way of the Lord,'
as
the prophet Isaiah said."
(John 1:23, ESV)
The
next day he
saw Jesus coming toward him,
and said, "Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of
the world! This
is he of whom I said,
'After
me comes a man who ranks before me, because he was before me.'
I myself did not know him, but for this purpose I came baptizing with
water, that he might be revealed to Israel." And
John bore witness: "I saw the Spirit descend from heaven like a
dove, and it remained on him. I myself did not know him, but he who
sent me to baptize with water said to me, 'He on whom you see the
Spirit descend and remain, this is he who baptizes with the Holy
Spirit.' And
I have seen and have borne witness that this
is the Son of God."
(John 1:29-34, ESV)
This
means that when Jesus appears it is Yahweh appearing because Jesus is
Yahweh.
To
summarize: These verses affirm (1) that John the Baptist is the voice
of one crying in the wilderness who makes the way for Yahweh God
prophesied in the Old Testament book of Isaiah. However, (2) John the
Baptist made the way for Jesus Christ! Therefore, (3) Jesus Christ is
Yahweh God who was predicted to come to his people!
Muslim
Objection: Osama
Abdullah takes issue with the Isaiah 40 prophecy itself when in verse
5 it says, “and
all flesh shall see the salvation of God.”
Osama
responds:
“All
flesh shall see it? I haven’t seen it yet.”(13)
Christian Response: Although
it’s quite clear that Isaiah says a voice in the wilderness will
herald Yahweh’s coming and that this was fulfilled by John the
Baptist introducing Christ, Osama is confused about “all flesh”
seeing the salvation of God. Even
though Yahweh God himself was seen, as promised in Isaiah, when
Christ (Yahweh) was introduced by the Baptist and then appeared to
his people, the salvation itself that this appearance entails would
not be seen by all flesh until the Gospel message is spread all over
the world. Knowing this, Christ gave these commands:
And
this
gospel of the kingdom
will be proclaimed throughout the
whole world
as a testimony to all
nations,
and then the end will come. (Matthew 24:14, ESV)
And
he said to them, "Go
into all the world
and proclaim
the gospel
to
the whole creation.
(Mark 16:15, ESV)
Go
therefore and make
disciples of all nations,
baptizing them in the name of the Father
and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you. And behold, I
am with you always, to the end of the age." (Matthew 28:19, ESV)
Therefore,
Yahweh God himself was seen in the first-century when Christ
appeared, and the salvation of this appearing is seen all over the
world in the form of the Gospel message contained in the Bible and in
preaching. Therefore, Jesus is Yahweh who appeared to his people and
his salvation is being seen now by all flesh.
Continuing
on Part II
Source:
http://answering-islam.org/authors/thompson/case_for_deity.html
(Kiki_32)
IHS