Thursday, 3 March 2022

Turning the Tables Pt. 7: Trinity Versus Tawhid

Here’s another installment in my ongoing series where I turn the very arguments utilized by Muhammadans against their own beliefs https://answeringislamblog.wordpress.com/2018/10/23/turning-the-tables-pt-6b/.

A common objection that Muslims raise is the assertion that the word “Trinity” never appears in the Holy Bible:

TRINITY

The Trinity, which I came to know, is not biblical. The word trinity is not even in the Bible, nor the Bible dictionaries. The trinity was never taught by Jesus and was never specifically mentioned by Jesus. (Abdul Malik (M. J.) LeBlanc, The Bible Led Me to Islam, Endorsed by Sheikh Ahmed Deedat [Al-Attique Publishers Inc., CANADA, 5th edition 2005], p. 42; http://www.islamicbook.ws/english/english-085.pdf)

And:

A. (Dr. Zakir): The sister has asked the question, that the Christians believe in ‘trinity’ – the father the son and the holy ghost, and that they are one. Does it mean that they also believe in one God? Sister, if you analyze, the word ‘trinity’ – it occurs, no where in the Bible. If you search the full Bible, the word ‘trinity’ doesn’t exist anywhere in the Bible – Its not there in the Bible. But the word ‘trinity’ in there in the Holy Qu’ran. (Dr. Zakir Naik: Question and Answer, November 12, 2012 https://zakirnaikqa.wordpress.com/2012/11/14/concept-of-god-in-major-religions-q1/)

What makes this rather ironic is that the very term, which Muslim scholars coined to describe the oneness or singularity of their god, namely tawhid, never appears in either the Quran or the traditions attributed to Muhammad!

To make matters worse, tawhid does not even bear the meaning of singleness, solitariness, unitary etc. Rather, its literal meaning is unification, to unify or consolidate, and/or to make something one!

This is a fact that Muslim scholars and polemicists themselves recognize and admit, including Zakir Naik himself:

Meaning of Tawhid

The word Tawhid comes from the verb wahhad which literally means TO UNITE. In Islamic terminology, it means to realize and maintain the unity of Allah in one’s actions (inwardly and outwardly). The actual word tawhid does not occur in the Quran or Sunnah though the present tense of the verb (from which tawhid is derived) is used in Sunnah. The Prophet sent Muadh ibn Jabal as governor of Yemen in 9 A.H. He told him, “You will going to the people of the book, so first invite yuwahhidu Allah [them to the assertion of the oneness of Allah]”.[1]

1. Sahih Bukhari vol 9, No. 469 and Sahih Muslim vol 1, No. 27 (The Concept Of Tawhid In Islam https://www.bismikaallahuma.org/islam/tawhid-in-islam/; bold and capital emphasis ours)

TAWHEED:

Definition and Categories:

Islam believes in ‘Tawheed’ which is not merely monotheism i.e. belief in one God, but much more. Tawheed LITERALLY MEANS ‘UNIFICATION’ i.e. ‘asserting oneness’ and is derived from the Arabic verb ‘Wahhada’ which means TO UNITE, UNIFY OR CONSOLIDATE. (Naik, Concept of God In Islam http://www.islam101.com/tauheed/conceptofGod.htm; see also https://zakirnaikqa.wordpress.com/2016/03/31/tawheed-and-its-types-by-drzakirnaik/; bold and capital emphasis ours)

1. CHAPTER ON THE CATEGORIES OF TAWHEED

LITERALLY Tawheed means “UNIFICATION” (making something one) or “asserting oneness”, and it comes from the Arabic verb (wahhadaWHICH ITSELF MEANS TO UNITE, UNIFY OR CONSOLIDATE.1 However, when the term Tawheed is used in reference to Allaah (i.e. Tawheedullaah2), it means the realizing and maintaining of Allaah’s unity in all of man’s actions which directly or indirectly relate to Him. It is the belief that Allaah is One, without partner in His dominion and His actions (Ruboobeeyah), One without similitude in His essence and attributes (Asmaa wa Sifaat), and One without rival in His divinity and in worship (Ulooheeyah/‘Ebaadah). These three aspects form the basis for the categories into which the science of Tawheed has been traditionally divided. The three overlap and are inseparable to such a degree that whoever omits any one aspect has failed to complete the requirements of Tawheed. The omission of any of the above mentioned aspects of Tawheed is referred to as “Shirk” (lit. sharing); the association of partners with Allaah, which, in Islamic terms, is in fact idolatry. (Dr. Abu Ameenah Bilal Philips, The Fundamentals of Tawheed (Islamic Monotheism), p. 1 https://www.cia.gov/library/abbottabad-compound/84/84575EAC059788C5E8DFA51FEF117E4A_The%20Fundamentals%20of%20Tawheed.pdf; see also http://www.answering-christianity.com/FundamentalsOfTawheed.pdf, pp. 18-19; capital and underline emphasis ours)

Footnote

1 J.M. Cowan, The Hans Wehr Dictionary of Modern Written Arabic, (Spoken Language Services Inc., New York, 3rd. ed., 1976), p.1055.

2 The word Tawheed DOES NOT ACTUALLY OCCUR IN EITHER THE QUR’AAN OR IN THE STATEMENTS (Hadeeths) OF THE PROPHET. However, when the Prophet sent Mu’aadh ibn Jabal as governor of Yemen in 9AH, he told him, “You will be going to Christians and Jews (ahl al-Kitaab), so the first thing you should invite them to is the assertion of the oneness of Allaah (Yuwahhidoo Allaah).” (Narrated by Ibn ‘Abbaas and collected by al-Bukhaaree (Muhammad Muhsin Khan, Sahih Al-Bukhari, (ArabicEnglish), (Riyadh: Maktabah ar-Riyaad al-Hadeethah, 1981), vol.9, pp. 348-9, no.469) and Muslim (Abdul Hamid Siddiq, Sahih Muslim (English Trans.), (Lahore: Sh. Muhammad Ashraf Publishers, 1987), vol.1, pp.14-5, no.27). In this Hadeeth the present tense of the verb from which the verbal noun Tawheed is derived was used by the Prophet. (Ibid., p. 31; capital and underline emphasis ours)

In light of this fact, tawhid is not the appropriate term to use in reference to the unitarianism that Muslims boast is plainly taught in their religious scripture. Ironically, it is actually a more apt description of God’s Triunity, as well as what the Quran actually teaches about the nature of the Islamic deity!

The fact is that the Muslim scripture does not teach that Allah is a singular person or consciousness, or that no other divine beings exist. On the contrary, the Quran clearly affirms the following:

The Holy/Faithful Spirit, also identified as the Spirit of Allah (i.e. “Our Spirit,” “My Spirit,” “His Spirit”), is a divine Being whom Allah breathes out of himself, appears in human form as Allah’s apostle to righteous servants such as Jesus’ blessed mother, creates, gives life, and strengthens all believers including Jesus (Q. 2:87, 253; 5:110; 16:102; 15:28-29; 21:91; 32:7-9; 38:71-72; 58:22; 66:12). The Spirit is also differentiated from all the angels, obviously because he isn’t an angel, but a being whose nature is mysterious since mankind knows very little about him (Q. 16:2; 17:85; 70:4; 78:38; 97:4).

Jesus is the divine preexistent Word of Allah and Spirit that came forth from him in order to enter into Mary for the express purpose of becoming human (Q. 3:45; 4:171). Jesus even creates, breathes life into inanimate clay objects, raises the dead, gives sight to the blind and heals specific diseases, functions that the Quran ascribes to Allah alone (Q. 3:49; 5:110 – cf. 15:28-29; 22:6-7; 38:71-72).

Orthodox sunni Islam proclaims that the Quran is one of the essential attributes of the Muslim deity, since it is the uncreated speech of Allah that became a book:

35. The Qur’an is the Word of God that emanated from Him without modality in its expression. He sent it down to His messenger as a revelation. The believers accept it as such literally. They are certain it is, in reality, the Word of God, the Sublime and Exalted.

36. Unlike human speech, it is eternal and uncreated. (The Creed of Imam Al-Tahawi (Al-Aqidah al-Tahawiyyah), translated, annotated and introduced by Hamza Yusuf [Zaytuna Institute, 2007], p. 54; bold emphasis ours)

73. We do not argue about the Qur’an. Rather, we testify that it is the Word of the Lord of the universe as revealed through the Trustworthy Spirit, who taught it to the paragon of messengers, Muhammad. It is the Word of God, the Sublime and Exalted. No mortal speech compares to it, and we do not say it is created. (Ibid., p. 64; bold emphasis ours)

As such, the Quran is composed of two distinct natures, one that is an eternal, and the other that is finite, temporal and physical.

There you have it folks. Not only does the word tawhid never appear in the Quran and ahadith, but it also doesn’t even mean what Muslims think or claim it means! Instead of affirming that the Muslim god is a singularity, the term actually points to Allah being a composite or compound unity, wherein several gods and/or divine persons come together as one.

And this is precisely what the Quran and sunni sources teach, namely, the Islamic deity is a unified being in which more than one god or divine entity consolidate together to form a unity.

So much for the Muslim objection against the word Trinity not being found in the Holy Bible!

Source: https://answeringislamblog.wordpress.com/2018/12/26/turning-the-tables-pt-7-trinity-versus-tawhid/

IHS

Dismantling the Muhammadan perception of John 1:1 Pt. 3

In this third part of my rebuttal https://answeringislamblog.wordpress.com/2018/12/29/dismantling-the-muhammadan-perception-of-john-11-pt-2/, I am going to provide further evidence from John’s Gospel that Jesus isn’t merely a lesser, subordinate deity to the Father, but is actually identified as Jehovah God Almighty in the flesh.

Even after Jesus had performed so many signs in their presence, they still would not believe in him. This was to fulfill the word of Isaiah the prophet: ‘Lord, who has believed our message and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?’ For this reason they could not believe, because, as Isaiah says elsewhere: ‘He has blinded their eyes and hardened their hearts, so they can neither see with their eyes, nor understand with their hearts, nor turn—and I would heal them.’ Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus’ glory and spoke about him.” John 12:37-41 New International Version (NIV)

Amazingly, the Evangelist alludes to the language Moses employed in respect to Israel’s disbelieving in Jehovah despite all the signs he performed in their midst,

“The Lord said to Moses, ‘How long will these people treat me with contempt? How long will they refuse to believe in me, in spite of all the signs I have performed among them?’” Numbers 14:11 NIV

To describe the unbelief of the Lord Jesus’ Jewish contemporaries even though he had carried out so many miracles before them. But even more shocking is John’s citing Isaiah 6:10 to prove that Isaiah actually saw the glory of the prehuman Christ, which is why the prophet spoke of Jesus.

The reason why this is so shocking is because Isaiah actually beheld the glory of Jehovah, whom he saw visibly seated on his heavenly throne!

“In the year that King Uzziah died I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, high and lifted up, and His train filled the temple. Above it stood the seraphim. Each one had six wings. With two he covered his face, and with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew. One cried to another and said: ‘Holy, holy, holy, is the Lord of Hosts; the whole earth is full of His glory.’ The posts of the door moved at the voice of him who cried, and the house was filled with smoke. And I said: ‘Woe is me! For I am undone because I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips. For my eyes have seen the King, the Lord of Hosts.’…  Also I heard the voice of the Lord saying, ‘Whom shall I send, and who will go for US?’ Then I said, ‘Here am I. Send me.’ He said, ‘Go, and tell this people: “Keep on hearing, but do not understand; keep on seeing, but do not perceive.” Make the heart of this people dull, and their ears heavy, and shut their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and turn and be healed.’” Isaiah 6:1-5, 8-10

John is basically telling us that the God whom the prophet saw enthroned in heaven, the God whose glory he beheld, was actually the Lord Jesus Christ in his preincarnate existence!

12:41 With its stronger eternal support hoti is to be preferred over hote (“when”; Metzger 203). Autou refers to Jesus, as the following peri autou makes clear. Apparently Isaiah had a vision of the pre-incarnate glory of Christ (cf. 17:5)–as the One subsisting in God’s essence (Phil 2:6). ‘Elaleesen 3rd sg. aor. act. indic. of laleo. (Harris, p. 238)

Ver. 41. “This did Isaiah say, when he saw his glory and spoke of him.” John justifies in this verse the application which he has just made to Jesus Christ of the vision of Is. vi. The Adonai whom Isaiah beheld at that moment was the divine being who is incarnated in Jesus. Herein also John and Paul meet together; comp. 1 Cor. x. 4, where Paul calls the one who guided Israel from the midst of the cloud Christ.  Some interpreters have tried to refer the pronoun autou, of him, not to Christ, but to God. But the last words: and spoke of him, would be useless in this sense and this remark would be aimless in the context. The Alexandrian reading, “because he saw,” instead of “when he saw him,” is adopted by Tischendorf, Weiss, Keil, etc. But it does not appear to me acceptable. Its only reasonable sense would be: “because he really saw his glory and spoke of Him so long beforehand (a thing which seems impossible).” But this reflection would be very coldly apologetic and quite useless for readers who were accustomed to hear the prophecies quoted. It is much more easy to understand how the conjunction hote, which is quite rarely used, may have been replaced by hoti, which appears in every line, than how the reverse could have taken place. The ancient Latin and Syriac versions are agreed in supporting the received text. The sense of the latter is simple and perfectly suitable. “It was of Christ, who manifested Himself to him as Adonai, that Isaiah spoke when he uttered such words.” John proves that he has the right to apply this passage here. (Frederic Louis Godet, Commentary on the Gospel of John with an Historical and Critical Introduction, translated from the third French edition with a preface introductory suggestions, and additional notes by Timothy Dwight President of Yale [Funk and Wagnals Publishers, New York 1886], Volume 2, pp. 235-236: http://books.google.com/books?id=zx8WAAAAYAAJ&printsec=frontcover#v=onepage&q&f=false; bold emphasis ours)

This is further confirmed by what the Apostle wrote in his prologue:

“No one has EVER seen God. It is God the only Son (monogenes Theos), who is close to the Father’s heart, who has made him known.” John 1:18 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

Note the following renderings of this text:

“It is true that no one has EVER seen God AT ANY TIME. Yet the divine and only Son, who lives in the closest intimacy with the Father, has made him known.” J. B. Phillips New Testament

“No one has seen God AT ANY TIMEthe only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.” New American Standard Version (NASB)

“No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known.” English Standard Version (ESV)

“No one has ever seen God. The uniquely existing God, who is close to the Father’s side, has revealed him.” International Standard Version (ISV)

John is emphatically clear. Since no one is able to perceive who and what God is like apart from the revelation of God’s only-begotten Son, who himself is God in essence, this means that Isaiah could not have seen Jehovah in his visible glory if it wasn’t the Son making him known. Therefore, the God who appeared to Isaiah in order to commission him as his prophet was none other than the unique, divine preexistent Son.

In fact, this would be true of all the other places in the Hebrew Bible where Jehovah appears in visible form to his servants:

“Then Moses went up with Aaron, Nadab, and Abihu, and seventy of the elders of Israel, and they saw the God of Israel, and under HIS FEET there was something like a paved work of sapphire stone as clear as the sky itself. He did not lay His hand upon the nobles of the children of Israel. Also they saw God, and they ate and they drank.” Exodus 24:9-11

“And he said, ‘Hear, therefore, the word of the Lord: I saw the LORD sitting on His throne, and all the host of heaven standing beside Him on His right hand and on His left. The LORD said, “Who will persuade Ahab so that he will go up and die at Ramoth Gilead?” And one said this, and another said that. Then a spirit came forth and stood before the LORD and said, “I will persuade him.” The LORD said to him, “How?” And he said, “I will go and be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets.” And He said, “You will be successful and persuade him. Go forth, and do so.” Now therefore, the LORD has put a lying spirit in the mouths of all your prophets here, and He has spoken evil concerning you!’” 1 Kings 22:19-23

I saw the Lord standing upon the altar, and He said: Strike the capitals so that the thresholds shake; break them off onto the heads of all of them. Those who remain I will slay with the sword. Not one of them will get away; not one fugitive will survive.” Amos 9:1

According to John, this was none other than the Son appearing as Jehovah since no one can have access to the Father apart from the Son’s revelation of him.

The Apostle further confirms this by identifying the Baptist as the voice, which Isaiah prophesied would cry out in the desert to prepare the people for the appearance of Jehovah God:

“The Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, the glory as the only Son of the Father, full of grace and truth. John bore witness of Him and cried out, ‘This was He of whom I said, “He who comes after me is preferred before me, for He was before me.”’… John said, ‘I am the voice of one crying out in the wilderness, “Make straight the way of the Lord,” just as the prophet Isaiah said.’… John answered them, ‘I baptize with water, but One stands among you, whom you do not know. This is He who comes after me, who is preferred before me, the strap of whose sandal I am not worthy to untie.’ These things took place in Bethany beyond the Jordan, where John was baptizing. The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, ‘Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world. This is He of whom I said, “After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.” I did not know Him, but for this reason I came baptizing with water: so that He might be revealed to Israel.’ Then John bore witness, saying, ‘I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it remained on Him. I did not know Him, but He who sent me to baptize with water said to me, “The One on whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining, this is He who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.” I have seen and have borne witness that He is the Son of God.’ Again, the next day John was standing with two of his disciples. Looking upon Jesus as He walked, he said, ‘Look, the Lamb of God!’” John 1:14-15, 23, 26-36

Pay close attention to the fact that the One whom John came to prepare for is the Lord Jesus Christ. Now here’s the context of the prophecy, which both the Apostle and the Baptist had in view:

“The voice of him who cries out, ‘Prepare the way of the Lord in the wilderness, make straight in the desert a highway for our God. Let every valley be lifted up, and every mountain and hill be made low, and let the rough ground become a plain, and the rough places a plain; then the glory of the Lord shall be revealed, and all flesh shall see it together, for the mouth of the Lord has spoken it.’… O Zion, bearer of good news, get yourself up onto a high mountain; O Jerusalem, bearer of good news, lift up your voice with strength, lift it up, do not be afraid; say to the cities of Judah, ‘Here is your God!’ See, the Lord God will come with a strong hand, and His arm shall rule for Him; see, His reward is with Him, and His recompense before Him. He shall feed His flock like a shepherd; He shall gather the lambs with His arm, and carry them in His bosom, and shall gently lead those that are with young.” Isaiah 40:3-5, 9-11

According to the prophet, the One whom the envoy prepares for is Jehovah God Almighty who comes to shepherd his people, which is precisely what Jesus does!

“‘I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd lays down His life for the sheep… I am the good shepherd. I know My sheep and am known by My own. Even as the Father knows Me, so I know the Father. And I lay down My life for the sheep. I have other sheep who are not of this fold. I must also bring them, and they will hear My voice. There will be one flock and one shepherd. Therefore My Father loves Me, because I lay down My life that I may take it up again. No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down Myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it up again. I received this command from My Father.’… Jesus answered them, ‘I told you, and you did not believe. The works that I do in My Father’s name bear witness of Me. But you do not believe, because you are not of My sheep, as I said to you. My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me. I give them eternal life. They shall never perish, nor shall anyone snatch them from My hand.’” John 10:11, 14-18, 25-28

In other words, Jesus is the Jehovah God whose coming was heralded by the Baptist!

To sum up the Evangelist’s witness:

Jesus is the Jehovah God who appeared to Isaiah in his visible glory, seated on his heavenly throne and surrounded by the seraphim.

The Baptist is the voice that Isaiah said would be sent to prepare for the coming of Jehovah God to shepherd his flock, and whose glory all flesh would see. And yet Jesus Christ is the One whom John was sent to bear witness to. This means that Jesus is none other than Jehovah God in the flesh whose glory was seen by the people and his disciples.

In light of the foregoing, could the Evangelist be any more explicit in identifying Jesus Christ as Jehovah God Almighty, being the very unique divine Son of God who is essentially coequal to the Father?

What About Moses? 

The Muslim neophyte quotes certain unitarian heretics who cite the following OT text,

“So the Lord said to Moses, ‘See, I have made you a god (elohim) to Pharaoh, and Aaron your brother will be your prophet.’” Exodus 7:1

To prove that Jesus is nothing more than God’s agent like Moses, his shaliach so to speak, which is why he can be addressed as God since, like the OT prophets before him, Christ spoke in the place of God and with God’s authority.

To say that this is a desperate argument would be to put it rather mildly.

Moses is called god solely because he was God’s agent authorized to speak on God’s behalf. Christ, however, isn’t merely God because he represents the Father, but rather because he possesses all of God’s essential attributes, and does what only can God do. Take, for instance, the following texts:

“For as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, even so the Son gives life to whom He will… Truly, truly I say to you, the hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live. For as the Father has life in Himself, so He has given to the Son to have life in Himself, and has given Him authority to execute judgment also, because He is the Son of Man. Do not marvel at this. For the hour is coming in which all who are in the graves will hear His [the Son’s] voice and come out—those who have done good to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil to the resurrection of judgment.” John 5:21, 25-29

“‘For I came down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. This is the will of the Father who has sent Me, that of all whom He has given Me, I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day. This is the will of Him who sent Me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in Him may have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.’ The Jews then murmured about Him, because He said, ‘I am the bread which came down from heaven.’ They said, ‘Is this not Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How is it then that He says, “I have come down from heaven”?’ Jesus therefore answered them, ‘Do not murmur among yourselves. No one can come to Me unless the Father who has sent Me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day.’” John 6:38-44

“Jesus said to him, ‘I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me.’” John 14:6

In these examples, Christ identifies himself as the Son who came down from heaven in order to fulfill the Father’s will, which includes raising up or resurrecting all who put their trust in him on the last day. Christ further says that he gives life to whomever he chooses, and states that the hour is coming when he will personally resurrect the dead from their graves by the power of his voice. The Lord even claims to be the Truth and Life.

Now the reason why Jesus’ statements are astonishing is because even the Quran acknowledges that these are prerogatives and characteristics, which can only be ascribed to God!

That is because God — He is the Truth, and brings the dead to life, and is powerful over everything, and because the Hour is coming, no doubt of it, and God shall raise up whosoever is within the tombs. S. 22:6-7 Arberry

Note that it is God who is the truth, gives life and who will resurrect the dead from their graves when the hour comes. And these are all the things that the Lord Jesus says in regards to himself, i.e., Christ is the Truth that gives life to whomever he so wishes, and who will raise the dead from their graves at the last hour!

And yet none of these things are ascribed to Moses. Moses is never said to have come down from heaven to give life, or to raise all the dead at the last day and hour. Nor is Moses ever identified as God’s agent of creation, or as the truth and the life. To, therefore, liken Moses’ being called god to the NT portrayal of Jesus as God is to compare apples and pineapples. It is simply desperate to say the least, since the things said of Christ are never said of Moses.

This should sufficiently put to rest the desperate and feeble attempts by this greenhorn and the unitarian heretics he cites to pervert the clear, explicit witness of John’s prologue to the essential Deity and eternal prehuman existence of the Lord Jesus as the Word or Logos of God.

Unless otherwise noted, all scriptural citations taken from the Modern English Version (MEV) of the Holy Bible.

Further Reading

Jehovah’s Witnesses and John 1:1: New Evidence Advances the Discussion http://www.equip.org/article/jehovahs-witnesses-john-11-new-evidence-advances-discussion/

“From God (QEOS) To God (NOYTE)” (The Journal of Theological Studies, NS, Vol. 62, Pt 2, October 2011) http://forananswer.org/Top_JW/From%20QEOS%20to%20NOUTE.pdf

John 1:1c in the Sahidic Coptic Translation: What the Scholars Really Said http://www.forananswer.org/Top_JW/ScholarsAndCopticJohn.htm

The New World Translation: What the Scholars Really Said http://forananswer.org/Top_JW/Scholars%20and%20NWT.htm#Horner

John 1:1 in the Sahidic Coptic Translation http://forananswer.blogspot.com/2006/10/john-11-in-sahidic-coptic-translation.html

Hoskyns and Coptic John 1:1 http://forananswer.blogspot.com/2006/10/hoskyns-and-coptic-john-11.html

John 1:18 in the Sahidicc Coptic Translation http://forananswer.blogspot.com/2006/10/john-118-in-sahidic-coptic-translation.html

Coptic John 1:1 & New World Translation http://www.4witness.org/coptic-john-11-new-world-translation/

The Gospel of John in Sahidic http://forananswer.org/Top_JW/GJohn1_Sahidic.htm

John 8:58 and The Sahidic Coptic Translation http://forananswer.blogspot.com/2007/02/john-858-in-sahidic-coptic-translation.html

The Word and The Watchtower: An Exegesis of John 1:1 http://carm.org/the-word-and-the-watchtower-an-exegesis-of-john-1-1

John 1:1, “The word was a god” http://carm.org/john-1-1-word-was-god

The Real Truth of John 1:1 http://answeringislam.net/Shamoun/john1_1_eb.htm

John 1:1 http://forananswer.org/John/Jn1_1.htm

The New World Translation: What the Scholars Really Say http://forananswer.org/Top_JW/Scholars%20and%20NWT.htm

Source: ttps://answeringislamblog.wordpress.com/2019/01/02/dismantling-the-muhammadan-perception-of-john-11-pt-3/

IHS

Dismantling the Muhammadan perception of John 1:1 Pt. 2

I continue my rebuttal to the Muslim neophyte’s tirade against God’s inspired Word https://answeringislamblog.wordpress.com/2018/12/28/dismantling-the-muhammadan-perception-of-john-11-pt-1/.

Unitarian Incoherent Babble: Wanting to have your cake and eat it too!

The greenhorn appeals to the incoherent and inconsistent polemics of unitarian heretics to undermine the explicit testimony of John’s prologue to the essential Deity and eternal Personhood of the Logos: 

“It is a common but patent misreading of the opening of John’s Gospel to read it as if it said: “In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was God” (John 1:1).” [1]

Over 50 translations of the Bible as noted by Buzzard do not presume that John 1:1 speaks of a second person in a Triune Godhead. [2] So he is clearly not a lone wolf in his view that the ‘logos’ in John 1:1 is the mind or the plan of God rather than a being or an entity existing pre-eternally with the Father as Jesus, the Son.

“For 50 translations which did not assume that logos was a second Person, see Focus on the Kingdom of July, 2004, at restorationfellowship.org. These translations give us the pronoun “it”, not “he” for word.” (Bold emphasis mine)

And:

The ordained Anglican priest and Cambridge theologian, Prof. Cupitt writes:

“John’s words ought to be retranslated: “The Word was with God the Father and the Word was the Father’s own Word,” to stress that the Word IS NOT AN INDEPENDENT DIVINE BEING, but is the only God’s own self-expression. If all this is correct, then even John’s language about Jesus still falls within the scope of the King-ambassador model.” [3] (Bold and capital emphasis mine)

Again:

And finally, let us closely consider the latest translation of John 1:1 by the able scholar of the Greek language and New Testament theologian, Sir Anthony F. Buzzard:

“In the beginning there was God’s grand design, and that declaration was with God, related to Him as His project, and IT was fully expressive of God Himself.” [12] (Bold and capital emphasis mine)

Finally:

Andrew Cooper Fix points out that the archaic Reijnier Rooleeuw (published in 1694) translation of John 1:1 reflects a Socinian Christological view of Jesus that is antithetical to the Trinitarian view of the verse:

“And the word was a god.” [4]

The above citations illustrate what happens whenever heretics decide to pervert the Word of God. The Lord shames them by exposing them as incoherent babblers and liars:

“Every word of God is pure; He is a shield to those who put their trust in Him. Do not add to His words, lest He reprove you, and you be found a liar.” Proverbs 30:5-6

Notice the gross contradiction in what is being asserted by these perverters of God’s truth. If the Logos is not an independent divine being, but merely the plan or mind of God, since it is nothing more than God’s self-expression, then it makes absolutely no sense to say that the Logos is A god!

With that said, do these heretics really want us to believe that God’s own mind or plan is actually A god? If so then how many gods are there, seeing that God’s plans are so numerous? Should we, therefore, assume that God has eternally existed with a host of lesser divine beings, or that God’s own mind is an independent divine being? Do the readers see just how ridiculous this argument is?

On the other hand, if these so-called Christian unitarians are correct that the Greek of John 1:1c, i.e. kai Theos en ho Logos, should be rendered as “and the Word was A god,” then this completely refutes their argument that the Logos is not a living Being. The only way that the Logos can be A god is if he is an actual conscious divine Person that exists independently from God.

Such incoherent nonsense only confirms that the traditional orthodox interpretation of John 1:1 is the correct one:

1 The preexistence of the Word is strongly brought out by the phrase… (en arche een ho logos, “in the beginning was the word”)… (arche) according to H. Bietenhard “is an important term in Gk philosophy,” which means, among other things, “starting point, original beginning” (DNTT, 1:164). By itself, this may not seem too significant, for few would debate that we are dealing with the “original beginning.” It is the presence of the verb… (een, “was”) that brings out the importance of this phrase. Literally, it could and should be rendered “When the beginning began, the Word was already there.” This is the sense of en, which is in the imperfect tense AND IMPLIES CONTINUOUS EXISTENCE IN THE PAST. So before the beginning began, the Word was already in existence. This is tantamount to saying that the Word predates time or Creation.

The three statements of v. 1 bring out three different aspects of the nature of the Word. The first speaks of his preexistence (see above). The second statement, “The Word was with God,” is an assertion of the Word’s distinctiveness. The preposition… (prosindicates both equality and distinction of identity. Robertson says, “The literal idea comes out well, ‘face to face with God’” (RHG, p. 623). Thus this IMPLIES PERSONALITY and coexistence with God. Robertson says it bespeaks of “the FELLOWSHIP between the Word and God.”

The third statement, “The Word was God,” is especially significant. This is a clear statement of deity inasmuch as the noun… (theos, “God”) is anarthrous; that is, it lacks the article. Much confusion has spawned over this point of Gr. Grammar. Robertson et al. have aptly demonstrated that the lack of the article in the predicate is intentional so that the subject can be distinguished. In other words, in the phrase… (theos een ho logos, “God was the Word”), were it not for the article… (ho) before the word … (logos), the subject of the phrase would be indeterminate. But the presence of the article shows that it is the “Word” that is the subject. The fact that theos is a predicate shows that IT IS DESCRIBING THE NATURE OF THE WORD; HE IS OF THE SAME NATURE AND ESSENCE AS THE NOUN IN THE PREDICATE; that is, the Word is divine (RHG, p. 767).

E. C. Colwell says that “a predicate nominative which precedes the verb cannot be translated as an indefinite or ‘qualitative’ noun solely because of the absence of the article; if the context suggests that the predicate is definite, it should be translated as a definite noun in spite of the absence of the article. In the case of a predicate noun which follows the verb the reverse is true; the absence of the article in this position is a much more reliable indication that the noun is indefinite” (“A Definite Rule for the Use of the Article in the Greek New Testament,” JBL, 52 [1933]: 20-21).

To say that the absence of the article bespeaks of the nonabsolute deity of the Word IS SHEER FOLLY. There are many places in this Gospel where the anarthrous theos appears (e.g., 1:6, 12, 13, 18), and not once is the implication that this is referring to just “a god.”

3 It is significant that the verb used three times in this v. is different from that used in the previous two vv. In vv. 1-2 the verb is the imperfect of … (eimi, “to be”), … (een, “was”), which is a verb describing a state of being. In v. 3, however, the verb … (ginomai, “to become”) is used, which has the force of “coming into being.” This, then, is another assertion of the deity of the Word. Through him all things “came into being,”… (egeneto), BUT HE ALWAYS WAS (een). This latter truth is emphasized by the “I am’s” of Christ mentioned throughout this Gospel. (Tenney, The Expositor’s Bible Commentary with the New International Version (John and Acts), Volume 9, pp. 29-30; bold and capital emphasis ours)

John’s Gospel provides further confirmation that the divine Logos is an eternal Person who became a flesh and blood human being named Jesus of Nazareth. Pay close attention to the prologue:

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (pros ton Theon), and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God (pros ton Theon). All things were created through Him, and without Him nothing was created that was created. In Him was life, and the life was the light of mankind. The light shines in darkness, but the darkness has not overcome it. There was a man sent from God whose name was John. This man came as a witness in order to testify concerning the Light, that all men through Him might believe. He was not this Light, but was sent in order to testify concerning the Light. The true Light, which enlightens everyone, was coming into the world (eis ton kosmon). He was in the world (en to kosmo), and the world was created through Him, yet the world did not know Him. He came to His own, and His own people did not receive Him. Yet to all who received Him, He gave the power to become sons of God, to those who believed in His name, who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. The Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, the glory as the only Son (hos monogenous) of the Father, full of grace and truth. John bore witness of Him and cried out, ‘This was He of whom I said, “He who comes after me is preferred before me, FOR HE WAS BEFORE ME.”’” John 1:1-15

Everything that the Prologue says about the Logos is ascribed to the Lord Jesus elsewhere in the Gospel:

Now this is the testimony of John, when the Jews sent priests and Levites from Jerusalem to ask him, ‘Who are you?’ He confessed, and did not deny, but confessed, ‘I am not the Christ.’… John answered them, ‘I baptize with water, but One stands among you, whom you do not know. This is He who comes after me, who is preferred before me, the strap of whose sandal I am not worthy to untie.’ These things took place in Bethany beyond the Jordan, where John was baptizing. The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, ‘Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world. This is He of whom I said, “After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, FOR HE WAS BEFORE ME.” I did not know Him, but for this reason I came baptizing with water: so that He might be revealed to Israel.’ Then John bore witness, saying, ‘I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it remained on Him. I did not know Him, but He who sent me to baptize with water said to me, “The One on whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining, this is He who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.” I have seen and have borne witness that He is the Son of God.’ Again, the next day John was standing with two of his disciples. Looking upon Jesus as He walked, he said, ‘Look, the Lamb of God!’” John 1:19-21, 26-36

“For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten (ton monogene) Sonthat whoever believes in Him should not perish, but have eternal life. For God did not send His Son into the world (eis ton kosmon) to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved. He who believes in Him is not condemned. But he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten (tou monogenous) Son of God. This is the verdict, that light has come into the world (eis ton kosmon), and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil. For everyone who does evil hates the light and does not come to the light, lest his deeds should be exposed. But he who does the truth comes to the light, that it may be revealed that his deeds have been done in God.’ After these things Jesus and His disciples came into the land of Judea. He remained with them there and baptized. John also was baptizing in Aenon toward Salim, because much water was there. And people came and were baptized. For John had not yet been put in prison. Then a dispute arose between some of John’s disciples and the Jews about ceremonial cleansing. They came to John and said to him, ‘Rabbi, He who was with you beyond the Jordan, to whom you bore witness, look, He is baptizing, and everyone is going to Him.’ John answered, ‘A man can receive nothing unless it has been given to him from heaven. You yourselves bear witness of me, that I said, “I am not the Christ,” but “I HAVE BEEN SENT BEFORE HIM.” He who has the bride is the bridegroom. But the friend of the bridegroom, who stands and hears him, rejoices greatly at the bridegroom’s voice. Therefore this joy of mine is fulfilled. He must increase, but I must decrease.’” John 3:16-30

“For as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, even so the Son gives life to whom He will… Truly, truly I say to you, the hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live. For as the Father has life in Himself, so He has given to the Son to have LIFE IN HIMSELF,” John 5:21, 25-26

“Again, Jesus spoke to them, saying, ‘I am the light of the world. Whoever follows Me shall not walk in the darkness, but shall have the light of life.” John 8:12

“I must do the works of Him who sent Me while it is day. Night is coming when no one can work. While I am in the world (en to kosmo), I am the light of the world.” John 9:4-5

“Then Jesus said to them, ‘Yet a little while the light is with you. Walk while you have the light, lest darkness overtake you. He who walks in darkness does not know where he is going. While you have light, believe in the light that you may become sons of light.’ Jesus said these things, and departed and hid Himself from them… ‘I have come as A LIGHT INTO THE WORLD (eis ton kosmon), that whoever believes in Me should not remain in darkness.’” John 12:35-36, 46

“… Having loved His own who were in the world, He loved them to the end.” John 13:1b

“Jesus performed many other signs in the presence of His disciples, which are not written in this book. But these are written that you might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life IN HIS NAME.” John 20:30-31

In light of the above passages note that,

Like the Word (1:4), Jesus has life within himself.

Like the Word (1:4-5, 8-10), Jesus is the Light sent into the world to shine in the darkness in order to enlighten every one who would come to him.

Like the Word (1:6-8), Jesus is the One that John the Baptist was sent to bear witness to, and Who existed before him.

Like the Word (1:11), Jesus came to his very own.

Like the Word (1:12-14), Jesus is the only-begotten Son of God the Father sent into the world so that everyone believing in his name should have everlasting life.

There’s more. Just as the Word was with God (pros ton Theon) in the beginning who then came into the world, Christ also went to be with God the Father after leaving the world that he came into:

“Now before the Passover Feast, Jesus knew that His hour had come to depart from this world to the Father (pros ton Patera)… Jesus, knowing that the Father had given all things into His hands and that He came from God and was going to God (pros ton Theon),” John 13:1, 3

“Truly, truly I say to you, he who believes in Me will do the works that I do also. And he will do greater works than these, because I am going to My Father (pros ton patera).” John 14:12

This next one is most interesting:

“‘I have told you these things in proverbs. But the time is coming when I will no longer speak to you in proverbs, for I will speak to you PLAINLY about the Father. On that day you will ask in My name. I am not saying to you that I shall ask the Father on your behalf. For the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved Me, and have believed that I came from God. I came from the Father and have come INTO THE WORLD (eis ton kosmon). As I said, I am leaving the world and am going TO THE FATHER (pros ton Patera).’ His disciples said to Him, ‘Yes! Now You are speaking plainly and with no figure of speech. Now we know that You know everything and do not need anyone to question You. By this we believe that You came from God.’ Jesus answered them, ‘Do you now believe?’” John 16:25-31

Instead of speaking in metaphors, parables, similes, hyperbole etc., Christ communicates in plain language and informs his followers that, just as he came from the Father to enter into the world, he was going to leave this world in order to be with the Father. And since the Lord is now speaking plainly, and not in figurative language, the disciples finally come to the realization that he indeed is omniscient and truly did come from God himself!

Now what makes the above cases rather important is that they all use the same preposition employed in 1:1-2, namely pros (“with/to”), to describe the Son personally going to the Father in order to continue their intimate, face-to-face relationship.

This places these unitarian heretics and the Muhammadan in a dilemma. Jesus was clearly a living, conscious Person when he left this world, and is now dwelling with the Father in heaven as an actual distinct Person.

Since none of these so-called Christians would disagree with this fact, then on what exegetical, contextual, and/or grammatical basis do they deny that Jesus personally, consciously existed with the Father as the Word before entering into the world seeing that John employs the very same preposition and language to describe Jesus leaving this world to go to God in order to continue the intimate, personal, face-to-face communion he enjoyed with the Father when he was on earth?

In other words, if the language of leaving this world and the use of pros in the above texts can only mean that Jesus entered heaven as an actual, conscious Person, and not merely as an idea or plan, then on what basis do these heretics have for depersonalizing the Word when John’s prologue employs the same language to describe the Word’s being with God before creation and his subsequent descent into the world?

There’s even more evidence that Christ personally, consciously preexisted in heaven before coming into the world:

“Jesus answered him, ‘Are you the teacher of Israel, but you do not know these things? Truly, truly I say to you, We speak of what WE KNOW and bear witness of what WE HAVE SEEN, but you do not receive Our testimony. If I have told you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things? No one has ascended to heaven EXCEPT HE WHO DESCENDED FROM HEAVEN, even the Son of Man who is in heaven.’… ‘He who comes from above is above all. He who is of the earth is earthly and speaks of the earth. He who comes FROM HEAVEN is above all.’” John 3:10-13, 31

Jesus plainly teaches that he speaks of heavenly realities from firsthand experience because he is the only One that has come down from heaven to make known these heavenly mysteries. This is why the Baptist went on to affirm that Christ, unlike himself, is from heaven above, which is why the Lord is above all.

And:

“Therefore they said to Him, ‘What sign do You show then, that we may see and believe You? What work will You perform? Our fathers ate manna in the desert. As it is written, “He gave them bread from heaven to eat.”’ Then Jesus said, ‘Truly, truly I say to you, Moses did not give you the bread from heaven, but My Father gives you the true bread FROM HEAVENFor the bread of God is HE WHO COMES DOWN FROM HEAVEN and gives life to the world.’ Then they said to Him, ‘Lord, give us this bread always.’ Jesus said to them, ‘I am the bread of life. Whoever comes to Me shall never hunger, and whoever believes in Me shall never thirst… For I came down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.’ … The Jews then murmured about Him, because He said, ‘I am the bread which came down from heaven.’ They said, ‘Is this not Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How is it then that He says, “I have come down from heaven”?’… Then what if you see the Son of Man ASCEND to where He was before?” John 6:30-35, 38, 41-42 62

Once again, just as the bread that God gave Israel literally came down from heaven above,

“Yet He had commanded the skies above and opened the doors of heaven, and He rained down manna upon them to eat and gave them the grain of heaven. Man ate the food of mighty angels; He sent them bread in abundance. He caused an east wind to blow in the heavens, and by His power He brought out a south wind. He rained meat on them as dust, and winged birds as the sand of the sea; and He let them fall in the midst of their camp all around their habitations. So they ate and were satisfied, for He gave them their own desire;” Psalm 78:23-29 – cf. Exodus 16

So, also, the Lord Jesus personally, consciously came down from heaven itself. And just as none of these heretics would deny that Jesus personally ascended into heaven, then they cannot deny that he must have come down from there as an actual conscious Person. The dilemma for these so-called Christians is that they cannot affirm the one without also affirming the other, since they can’t have their cake and eat it too, which is what they desperately want.

Therefore, if Jesus’ ascent into heaven was an actual, personal entrance, then his coming into the world must also have been a personal, conscious act. If the Lord didn’t ascend into heaven as a mere plan or idea, then the descent of the Logos into the world couldn’t have been nothing more than God’s plan being materialized in the creation of Christ in the womb of his blessed mother.

With the foregoing in perspective, how much clearer could John have been in affirming the eternal prehuman existence of Christ? What else could this inspired author have written to convince these heretics that the Logos is an eternal divine Person who existed with the Father before the entire creation came into being?

I’m still not finished rebutting this Muslim neophyte. More to come in the next section https://answeringislamblog.wordpress.com/2019/01/02/dismantling-the-muhammadan-perception-of-john-11-pt-3/.

Source: https://answeringislamblog.wordpress.com/2018/12/29/dismantling-the-muhammadan-perception-of-john-11-pt-2/

IHS

Dismantling the Muhammadan perception of John 1:1 Pt. 1

In this rebuttal I am going to address the desperate attempt made by Muhammadan-turned apostate-turned Muhammadan again-turned apostate again-turned Muhammad one more time Ibn Anwar to refute John 1:1’s explicit affirmation of Jesus’ prehuman existence as the uncreated Logos or Word http://unveiling-christianity.net/2016/02/23/dismantling-trinitarian-perception-john-11/.

I am going to break down the verse into three lines in order to assist the readers in understanding what the objection is:

a. In the beginning was the Word.

b. And the Word was with God (ton theon).

c. And the Word was God (theos).

The readers can see that in line c, the Greek word for God (theos) doesn’t have the Greek definite article for “the” (ho). This has led many anti-Trinitarians to assume that John was identifying Jesus as A god, e.g., as an inferior divinity to the Father, which is precisely what this Muslim greenhorn attempts to prove.

The Sahidic Coptic Version to the Rescue!

Ibn Anwar appeals to the Sahidic Coptic translation of John 1:1, which places an indefinite article before the Coptic word God in respect to the Word, in order to prove that John was identifying the prehuman Christ as A god, i.e., as a secondary deity to the Father:

Firstly, we point out that it is a documented fact, that the Sahidic Coptic MSS renders John 1:1c as “the word was a god” with “a god” in the “indefinite form.” If the Sahidic community had wanted to convey the Supreme Deity in the definite form, they most certainly had the grammatical tools to do so, but they chose to specifically write John 1:1c as “the word was a god” despite being Trinitarians themselves. This indicates that they saw the word as distinct from the father and that it did not share the same quality of Supreme Deity. If the Sahidic Coptic Christians had believed that the Word shared in equal divinity with the Father, they would certainly have designated the word with the phrase “the god” (with the definite article) and not as “a god.” The original Sahidic Coptic script is as follows:

ϨΝ ΤЄϨΟΥЄΙΤЄ ΝЄϤϢΟΟΠ ΝϬΙΠϢΑϪЄ, ΑΥѠ ΠϢΑϪЄ ΝЄϤϢΟΟΠ ΝΝΑϨΡΜ ΠΝΟΥΤЄ. ΑΥѠ ΝЄΥΝΟΥΤЄ ΠЄ ΠϢΑϪЄ

The key section that is understood as “and the word was a god” in the Sahidic Coptic variant above is “ΑΥѠ ΝЄΥΝΟΥΤЄ ΠЄ ΠϢΑϪЄ.” [5]

[5] See Jenott, Lance. “The Coptic Gospel of John.” N.p., 2003. Web. 23 Feb. 2016.

* The author Patrick Navas gives an excellent review of the Sahidic variant of John 1:1c:

Therefore, it is all the more strange that insights of the Sahidic Coptic text of John 1:1 are largely ignored by popular Bible translators. Might that be because the Sahidic Coptic Gospel of John translates John 1:1c in a way that is unpopular to many? The Sahidic text renders John 1:1c as auw neunoute pe pshaje, clearly meaning literally “and a god was the Word.” Unlike Koine Greek, Sahidic Coptic has both the definite article, p, and the indefinite article, ou, which may contract to u following the joined verbal prefix ne (i.e., ne ou noute becomes neunoute.) The Coptic text of John 1:1b identifies the first mention of noute as pnoute, “the god”, i.e., God. This corresponds to the Koine Greek text, wherein theos, “god,” has the definite article ho at John 1:1b, i.e., “the Word was with [the] God.”

The Koine Greek text indicates indefiniteness of the word theos in its second mention (John 1:1c) of “god,” by omitting the definite article before it, because Koine Greek had no indefinite article. But Coptic does have an indefinite article. and [sic] the text employs the indefinite article at John 1:1c. This makes it clear that in reading the original Greek text, the ancient Coptic translators understood it to say specifically that “the Word was a god.” The early Coptic Christians had a good understanding of both Greek and their own language, and their translation of John’s Koine Greek here is very precise and accurate. Because they actually employed the indefinite article before the Sahidic word “god,” noute, the Sahidic Coptic translation of John 1:1c is more precise than the translation in the Latin Vulgate, since Latin has neither a definite nor an indefinite article. The 6th century Coptic Bohairic version also employs the indefinite article before the Coptic word for “god,”: ne ounouti in the full form ou, because the verbal particle ne is not joined to it, reading: ne ounouti pe picaji, “a god was the Word.”” (Navas, P. (2007). Divine Truth or Human Tradition?: A Reconsideration of the Roman Catholic-Protestant Doctrine of the Trinity in Light of the Hebrew and Christian Scriptures. Indiana: Author House. p. 309)

The Sahidic Coptic version was most likely produced in the third century, and therefore serves as an early witness as to how certain Christians understood John 1:1c. However, this doesn’t mean that the scribe(s) who was/were responsible for this translation thought that Christ was an inferior divinity to God the Father, since the Muslim neophyte and his sources conveniently forgot to inform the readers that this same version renders John 1:18 as pnoute pShre nouwt’. This literally reads, “THE God the Son only,” e.g., both nouns “God” and “Son” are preceded by the definite article, and therefore describe the Lord Jesus as the Son who exists as THE God, and not some lesser divinity to the one true God!

That’s not at all. The Sahidic version translates Jesus’ use of ego eimi (“I Am”) in John 8:58 as empate abraHam Swpe anok TSOOP. Sahidic Coptic scholar George Horner renders this as, “Before Abraham became, I, I AM BEING.”

Compare this with the Sahidic version of Exodus 3:14:

anok pe peTSOOP’… Je peTSOOP’ pe ntaFtnno oyt’ Sarwtn.

“I am He who is…This is He who is who has sent me to you.”

Note that the term TSOOP appears in both verses.

We, thus, have a clear parallel between the words of Jesus and Jehovah, indicating that the scribe(s) that produced this early version understood Christ to be identifying himself as the very God that appeared to Moses in the burning bush!

The Sahidic Coptic isn’t the only early witness to connect Jesus’ emphatic declaration to his eternal prehuman existence in John 8:58, with Jehovah’s own unique name that was revealed to Moses:

But wherefore said He not, Before Abraham was, I was, instead of I Am? As the Father uses this expression, I Am, so also does Christ; for it signifies continuous Being, irrespective of all time. On which account the expression seemed to them to be blasphemous. Now if they could not bear the comparison with Abraham, although this was but a trifling one, had He continually made Himself equal to the Father, would they ever have ceased casting stones at Him? (John Chrysostom, Homilies on John, Homily 55 http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/240155.htm; bold and underline emphasis ours)

What’s more, the Sahidic rendering provides ancient support that the following interpretations of John 8:58 are absolutely correct:

‘Amen chtl. 1:51. Prin + acc. and infin., “before.” Genesthai (aor. mid. infin. Of ginomai) stands in sharp contrast with einai: “Before Abraham came into existence/was born, I AM.” A similar construction is found in Ps 89:2, pro hore geneetheenai … su ei, “before the mountains came into existence, you exist.” Heb. ‘ani hu’, “I (am) he” (= ‘Ego eimi in the LXX) was Yahweh’s self-designation (Isa 43:10; 46:4; 48:12). The timeless eimi points to the absolute, independent, and ETERNAL existence of Jesus; it places Jesus “in God’s existence BEYOND TIME, in his ETERNAL PRESENT” (Schnackenberg 2:223; he believes Exodus 3:14 [LXX], ‘Ego eimi ho on forms the basis of Jesus’ claim [2:224, 494 n. 144]). Barrett spells out the implications of eimi this way: “I ETERNALLY WAS, as now I am, and ever continue to be” (352). (Murray J. Harris, John: Exegetical Guide to the Greek New Testament [B & H Publishing Group, Nashville, TN 2015], p. 183; capital and underline emphasis ours)

… ‘Ego eimi may be rendered in four basic ways:

1. “I AM” (Brown 346). Jesus is claiming to bear the divine name (Isa 43:10-11; Exod 3:14as the unique and ultimate revealer of God (cf. Brown 536-37). He is not claiming to be Yahweh himself, whether Yahweh be considered the Father or the totality of the Godhead, but he is claiming an identity of nature as the eternal Savior and a parity of status.

2. “I am he” (Schnackenberg 2:196; NIV, RSV, NRSV; Beasley-Murray 124, “I am [he]”) which is the OT revelation formula (Heb. ‘ani hu’, “I [am] he”) depicting the nature and presence of God as Savior. “[I]n Jesus God says his ‘It is I’” (Schnackenberg 2:200). Cf. ‘ego eimi, “It is I” in 6:20.

3. “I am (for ever) the same,” which is the meaning of the Heb. ‘ani hu’ (‘ego eimi in the LXX) in Isa 41:4; 43:10, 13l 46:4; 48:12 (cf. Barrett 342).

4. “I am what I am” (NEB, REB), “I Am Who I Am” (GNB; cf. Exod 3:14). (Ibid., p. 172; bold emphasis ours)

And:

They needed to believe that Jesus was “I am.” In context, this phrase has heavy theological connotations (cf. vv. 28, 58; 13:19). It appeared enigmatic at first, but later Jesus’ hearers realized that He was claiming to be God (cf. v. 59). The NIV’s “the one I claim to be” is an interpretation of Jesus’ meaning that is perhaps more misleading than helpful. Jesus was alluding to the title that God gave Himself in the Old Testament (Exod. 3:14; Deut. 32:39; Isa. 41:4; 43:10, 13, 25; 46:4; 48:12). Essentially “I am” means the eternally self-existent being.[509] Unless a person believes that Jesus is God, in contrast with less than God, he or she will die in his or her sins…

This was the third and last of Jesus’ solemn pronouncements in this discourse (cf. vv. 34, 51). If Jesus had only wanted to claim that He existed before Abraham, He could have said, “I was.” By saying, “I am,” He was not just claiming preexistence but deity (cf. vv. 24, 28; 5:18; Exod. 3:14; Isa. 41:4; 43:13).

It is eternity of being and not simply being that has lasted through several centuries that the expression indicates.”[534]

“The meaning here is: Before Abraham came into being, I eternally was, as now I am, and ever continue to be.”[535]

Jesus existed before Abraham came into being (Gr. genesthai).

[509] See Charles Gianotti, “The Meaning of the Divine Name YHWH,” Bibliotheca Sacra 142:565 (January-March 1985):38-51…

[534] Morris, p. 420.

[535] Barrett, p. 352. (Dr. Thomas L. Constable, Notes on John, 2016 Edition http://www.soniclight.com/constable/notes/htm/NT/John/John.htm; bold emphasis ours)

All of this shows that the Sahidic translator(s) clearly understood the Son to be fully divine, and therefore coequal with God the Father in essence.

As such, the employment of the indefinite article in John 1:1c cannot possibly mean that the producer(s) of this ancient version believed that Christ was a secondary, inferior divine being to the one true God. Rather, it seems reasonably certain that the indefinite article was used to differentiate the Word from the God he was with, i.e., the Father, while also emphasizing the qualities or nature of the Word, e.g., that the Word was God in nature, and therefore essentially one with the God with whom he has eternally existed.

This is precisely what the Greek of John 1:1 conveys:

“In the beginning” recalls the opening words of Genesis 1:1: “In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.” The expression does not refer to a particular moment of time but assumes A TIMELESS ETERNITY…  The preposition “with” in the phrase “the Word was with God” indicates both equality and distinction of identity along with association. The phrase can be rendered “face to face with.” It may, therefore, imply personality, coexistence with the Creator, and yet be an expression of his creative being. The position of the noun God in the Greek text marks it as a predicate, stressing description rather than individualization. The “Word” was deity, one with God, rather than “a god” or another being of the same class. This is THE REAL MEANING OF THE PHRASE. Unity of nature rather than similarity or likeness is implied. The eternal coexistence and unity of the Word with God is unmistakably asserted. (Merrill C. Tenney, The Expositor’s Bible Commentary with the New International Version (John and Acts), Frank E. Gaebelein (general editor) [Zondervan, Grand Rapids, MI 1981], Volume 9, p. 28; capital and underline emphasis ours)

The greenhorn himself provides implicit corroboration for my argument since he candidly admits that the Sahidic Coptic version was produced by Trinitarians:

“…but they chose to specifically write John 1:1c as “the word was a god” despite being Trinitarians themselves…” (Bold and italicized emphasis ours)

Now who in their right mind would think for a moment that these Trinitarians meant to depict Christ as a lesser, inferior deity to the one true God solely because they placed the indefinite article before the word God, seeing that they all believed that Jesus is the second Person of the Godhead, and therefore eternally coequal to the Father in essence?

I’m not through with this Muslim greenhorn just yet, since I have more to say in the next segment of my rebuttal https://answeringislamblog.wordpress.com/2018/12/29/dismantling-the-muhammadan-perception-of-john-11-pt-2/.

Source: https://answeringislamblog.wordpress.com/2018/12/28/dismantling-the-muhammadan-perception-of-john-11-pt-1/

IHS