About the Qur’an being clear…?

Following 6:151, being good to parents’ is a grave sin

The Qur’an is only convincing for those whose knowledge in Arabic is nonexistent or poor, which is the case in the vast majority of Muslims including the Arabs.

How can anybody read a book where the standard punctuation marks are not used at all? To confuse the reader even more, the Qur’an contains what appear to be scriptural errors in every verse. These deliberate violations to the Arabic writing protocols are peculiar to the Qur’an. As an example the word salat (prayer) is deliberately written like salowat and the word zakat is written like zakowat.

Then every letter in every word is surrounded by coded pronunciation marks that are special to the Qur’an , to describe how that particular letter, in that particular position, should be pronounced. To add to the confusion, those pronunciation marks often look like smaller versions of the normal Arabic letters.

Just in case all the above is not enough to confuse the reader, they add to every word the tajweed marks because every letter in the Qur’an has to be pronounced in a special way, according to its position in the word and sentence, to give a special sound effect, called tajweed, which is the Qur’an ’s musical note, as we may put it.

If any person with sanity receives a ‘clear’ message that reads H. M. h/she would reject it but Muslims accept it and consider it a miracle! As a matter of fact, the above two letters make the first verse of some suras in the Qur’an like sura 44. The interpretation books refer to this verse as a miracle! Muslim scholars say that nobody knows the meaning of the verse except Allah, which raises the question of why send a message that cannot be understood by the receiver? The IRONY is that the very next verse in sura 44 (i e 44:2) says “the clear book”!

Muslims have been reading such verses for centuries without making any sense of them, their only response is to say with amazement: subhan allah!

Sometimes, in high school lessons, teachers spend a long time explaining the wonderful eloquence of the Qur’an, but if one of the pupils asks a question about one of the verses discussed, as for example "

Q 49:9… two parties or groups among the believers fall to fighting, then... (وإنْ طائفتان من المؤمنين اقتتلوا)

where i n the above verse, the Qur’an uses the word iktatalu (translated above as fall to fighting) in a place where it should be iktatala, whithout the pupil having any other intention more than asking a simple grammar question, then the teacher stays surprised. He will reply, warning the pupil thatt he should be careful and respectful when it comes to discussing the Qur’an . It is obvious that the teacher notices the above error; but generally he struggles to find an answer and to demonstrate the non-existent eloquence of the verse. He will conclude that the early Arabs were amazed by the Qur’an , so who are we to disagree. Verse 49: 9 have an obvious grammatical error that cannot be denied or explained. Muslim scholars go round and round, they twist the rules and change the meanings and go to any length to tell us that the mistake is not only correct, but also is a miracle!

The Qur’an has many other grammatical errors. Here another one with a similar error to the one above:

Q 22:19: “These two opponents dispute with each other” هذان خصمان اختصموا

In the above verse, the Qur’an wrongly uses the word ikhtasamu (translated above as dispute with each other) in a place where it should be ikhtasama.

If you bring up the issue to Muslims, you hear their classic response “Do you think all those great Arabs of the past did not notice this? Do you think you are the genius of your time? Are you sure you understand the verse well?”

Now remember the verse 39:53: which is one of the few verses that project Allah as a kind and forgiving god

Q 39:53 Say: ‘O my slaves who have transgressed against themselves despair not of the Mercy of Allâh…

Muslims must have read the above verse thousands of times without ever noticing its obvious error! The verse contains an outrageous language and logical mistake. Allah is supposed to be talking to Mohammed and asking him to tell Muslims (Allah’s slaves) not to despair, but the existing wording implies that Muslims are Mohammed’s slaves! The above verse should start like this: ‘Say: O Allah’s slaves….’

The above verse is not a one off error; actually the Qur’an is full with them.

It is a common practice in the Qur’an for Allah to suddenly move from the third person to the first person or vice versa with no reason at all.

In verse 6:99, such a poor usage of language implies that Allah talks about a different god who sends down rain from the sky while He is responsible for the vegetations:

Q 6:99: “It is HE who sends down water from the sky, and with it WE bring forth vegetation of all kinds”…

But the favourite example of the Qur’an ’s lack of clarity is verse 6:151, which is a list of the forbidden things that Muslims must avoid. The verse, in theory, should be one of the easiest verses to compose; it is just a matter of listing things one after the other, which the Qur’an failed miserably to do:

Q 6:151. Say: "Come, I will recite what your Lord has prohibited you from: Join not anything in worship with Him; be good and dutiful to your parents; kill not your children because of poverty - We provide sustenance for you and for them; come not near to Al-Fawâhish whether committed openly or secretly, and kill not anyone whom Allâh has forbidden, except for a just cause

The above verse lists the forbidden things that all Muslims must avoid. The verse lists being good and dutiful to parents as one of those sins. Muslim scholars say that ‘being good to parents’ is not part of the list and we also sincerely hope it not. But why did Allah insert it in that position of the verse then rely on human commonsense to figure out that it is not part of that list? Is there a good writing style in the above verse? Would such writing be acceptable from any writer, past or present?

IHS